|
a legal aid organization or statewide association with a |
practice group dedicated to or focused on returning |
citizen expungements and sealing of criminal records, all |
appointed by the Governor. |
(2) 4 members of the public, one appointed by each of |
the following: the Speaker of the House of |
Representatives; the Minority Leader of the House of |
Representatives; the President of the Senate; and the |
Minority Leader of the Senate. |
(3) 2 individuals who have been formerly incarcerated, |
appointed by the Governor. |
(4) The Attorney General or his or her designee. |
(5) 2 individuals from the Illinois Sentencing Policy |
Advisory Council appointed by the Executive Director. |
(6) 2 State Representatives appointed by the Speaker |
of the House of Representatives; 2 State Representatives |
appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of |
Representatives; 2 State Senators appointed by the |
President of the Senate; 2 State Senators appointed by the |
Minority Leader of the Senate. |
The members of the Task Force shall serve without |
compensation. All appointments under this subsection must be |
made within 30 days after the effective date of this |
amendatory Act of the 104th 103rd General Assembly. |
(c) The State Board of Elections shall provide |
administrative and technical support to the Task Force and be |
|
responsible for administering its operations and ensuring that |
the requirements of the Task Force are met. The Executive |
Director of the State Board of Elections shall appoint a |
cochairperson for the Task Force and the President of the |
Senate and the Speaker of the House of Representatives shall |
jointly appoint a cochairperson for the Task Force. |
(d) The Task Force shall meet at least 4 times with the |
first meeting occurring within 60 days after the effective |
date of this amendatory Act of the 104th 103rd General |
Assembly. The Executive Director of the State Board of |
Elections shall designate the day, time, and place for each |
meeting of the Task Force. |
(e) The Task Force shall review what conduct currently |
precludes an individual from holding public office in this |
State; the policy rationale for precluding an individual from |
holding public office based on certain criminal conduct; |
available research and best practices for restoring returning |
individuals to full citizenship; and the processes of |
restoration of eligibility to hold public office in this |
State. After this review, the Task Force shall make |
recommendations as to what criminal conduct shall preclude an |
individual from holding public office in this State. |
(f) The Task Force shall produce a report detailing the |
Task Force's findings and recommendations and needed |
resources. The Task Force shall submit a report of its |
findings and recommendations to the General Assembly and the |
|
Governor by May 1, 2027 2025. |
(g) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2028 2026. |
(Source: P.A. 103-562, eff. 11-17-23.) |
Section 1-10. The Illinois Act on the Aging is amended by |
changing Section 8.10 as follows: |
(20 ILCS 105/8.10) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on May 16, 2026) |
Sec. 8.10. The Illinois Commission on LGBTQ Aging. |
(a) Commission purpose. The Commission is created to |
investigate, analyze, and study the health, housing, |
financial, psychosocial, home-and-community-based services, |
assisted living, and long-term care needs of LGBTQ older |
adults and their caregivers. The Commission shall make |
recommendations to improve access to benefits, services, and |
supports for LGBTQ older adults and their caregivers. The |
Commission, in formulating its recommendations, shall take |
into account the best policies and practices in other states |
and jurisdictions. Specifically, the Commission shall: |
(1) Examine the impact of State and local laws, |
policies, and regulations on LGBTQ older adults and make |
recommendations to ensure equitable access, treatment, |
care and benefits, and overall quality of life. |
(2) Examine best practices for increasing access, |
reducing isolation, preventing abuse and exploitation, |
|
promoting independence and self-determination, |
strengthening caregiving, eliminating disparities, and |
improving overall quality of life for LGBTQ older adults. |
(3) Examine the impact of race, ethnicity, sex |
assigned at birth, socioeconomic status, disability, |
sexual orientation, gender identity, and other |
characteristics on access to services for LGBTQ older |
adults and make recommendations to ensure equitable |
access, treatment, care, and benefits and overall quality |
of life. |
(4) Examine the experiences and needs of LGBTQ older |
adults living with HIV/AIDS and make recommendations to |
ensure equitable access, treatment, care, benefits, and |
overall quality of life. |
(5) Examine strategies to increase provider awareness |
of the needs of LGBTQ older adults and their caregivers |
and to improve the competence of and access to treatment, |
services, and ongoing care, including preventive care. |
(6) Examine the feasibility of developing statewide |
training curricula to improve provider competency in the |
delivery of culturally responsive health, housing, and |
long-term support services to LGBTQ older adults and their |
caregivers. |
(7) Assess the funding and programming needed to |
enhance services to the growing population of LGBTQ older |
adults. |
|
(8) Examine whether certain policies and practices, or |
the absence thereof, promote the premature admission of |
LGBTQ older adults to institutional care, and examine |
whether potential cost-savings exist for LGBTQ older |
adults as a result of providing lower cost and culturally |
responsive home and community-based alternatives to |
institutional care. |
(9) Examine outreach protocols to reduce apprehension |
among LGBTQ older adults and caregivers of utilizing |
mainstream providers. |
(10) Evaluate the implementation status of Public Act |
101-325. |
(11) Evaluate the implementation status of Public Act |
102-543, examine statewide strategies for the collection |
of sexual orientation and gender identity data and the |
impact of these strategies on the provision of services to |
LGBTQ older adults, and conduct a statewide survey |
designed to approximate the number of LGBTQ older adults |
in the State and collect demographic information (if |
resources allow for the implementation of a survey |
instrument). |
(b) Commission members. |
(1) The Commission shall include at least all of the |
following persons who must be appointed by the Governor |
within 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory |
Act of the 102nd General Assembly: |
|
(A) one member from a statewide organization that |
advocates for older adults; |
(B) one member from a national organization that |
advocates for LGBTQ older adults; |
(C) one member from a community-based, multi-site |
healthcare organization founded to serve LGBTQ people; |
(D) the director of senior services from a |
community center serving LGBTQ people, or the |
director's designee; |
(E) one member from an HIV/AIDS service |
organization; |
(F) one member from an organization that is a |
project incubator and think tank that is focused on |
action that leads to improved outcomes and |
opportunities for LGBTQ communities; |
(G) one member from a labor organization that |
provides care and services for older adults in |
long-term care facilities; |
(H) one member from a statewide association |
representing long-term care facilities; |
(I) 5 members from organizations that serve Black, |
Asian-American, Pacific Islander, Indigenous, or |
Latinx LGBTQ people; |
(J) one member from a statewide organization for |
people with disabilities; and |
(K) 10 LGBTQ older adults, including at least: |
|
(i) 3 members who are transgender or |
gender-expansive individuals; |
(ii) 2 members who are older adults living |
with HIV; |
(iii) one member who is Two-Spirit; |
(iv) one member who is an African-American or |
Black individual; |
(v) one member who is a Latinx individual; |
(vi) one member who is an Asian-American or |
Pacific Islander individual; and |
(vii) one member who is an ethnically diverse |
individual. |
(2) The following State agencies shall each designate |
one representative to serve as an ex officio member of the |
Commission: the Department, the Department of Public |
Health, the Department of Human Services, the Department |
of Healthcare and Family Services, and the Department of |
Veterans Affairs. |
(3) Appointing authorities shall ensure, to the |
maximum extent practicable, that the Commission is diverse |
with respect to race, ethnicity, age, sexual orientation, |
gender identity, gender expression, and geography. |
(4) Members of the Commission shall serve until this |
Section is repealed. Members shall continue to serve until |
their successors are appointed. Any vacancy shall be |
filled by the appointing authority. Any vacancy occurring |
|
other than by the dissolution of the Commission shall be |
filled for the balance of the unexpired term. Members of |
the Commission shall serve without compensation but shall |
be reimbursed for expenses necessarily incurred in the |
performance of their duties. |
(c) Commission organization. The Commission shall provide |
for its organization and procedure, including selection of the |
chairperson and vice-chairperson. A majority of the Commission |
shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business. |
Administrative and other support for the Commission shall be |
provided by the Department. Any State agency under the |
jurisdiction of the Governor shall provide testimony and |
information as directed by the Commission. |
(d) Meetings and reports. The Commission shall: |
(1) Hold at least one public meeting per quarter. |
Public meetings may be virtually conducted. |
(2) Prepare and submit an annual report to the |
Governor, the Illinois General Assembly, the Director, and |
the Illinois Council on Aging that details the progress |
made toward achieving the Commission's stated objectives |
and that contains findings and recommendations, including |
any recommended legislation. The annual report shall be |
made available to the public on the Department's publicly |
accessible website. |
(3) Submit, by no later than March 30, 2027 2026, a |
final report in the same manner as an annual report, |
|
detailing the work the Commission has done since its |
inception and providing the findings and recommendations, |
including any recommended legislation. The final report |
shall be made available to the public on the Department's |
publicly accessible website. |
The Department and Commission may collaborate with an |
institution of higher education in Illinois to compile the |
reports required under this Section. |
(e) This Section is repealed July 1, 2027 May 16, 2026. |
(Source: P.A. 103-1059, eff. 12-20-24; 104-234, eff. 8-15-25.) |
Section 1-12. The Children and Family Services Act is |
amended by changing Section 5.27 as follows: |
(20 ILCS 505/5.27) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026) |
Sec. 5.27. Holistic Mental Health Care for Youth in Care |
Task Force. |
(a) The Holistic Mental Health Care for Youth in Care Task |
Force is created. The Task Force shall review and make |
recommendations regarding mental health and wellness services |
provided to youth in care, including a program of holistic |
mental health services provided 30 days after the date upon |
which a youth is placed in foster care, in order to determine |
how to best meet the mental health needs of youth in care. |
Additionally, the Task Force shall: |
|
(1) assess the capacity of State licensed mental |
health professionals to provide preventive mental health |
care to youth in care; |
(2) review the current payment rates for mental health |
providers serving the youth in care population; |
(3) evaluate the process for smaller private practices |
and agencies to bill through managed care, evaluate |
delayed payments to mental health providers, and recommend |
improvements to make billing practices more efficient; |
(4) evaluate the recruitment and retention of mental |
health providers who are persons of color to serve the |
youth in care population; and |
(5) any other relevant subject and processes as deemed |
necessary by the Task Force. |
(b) The Task Force shall have 9 members, comprised as |
follows: |
(1) The Director of Healthcare and Family Services or |
the Director's designee. |
(2) The Director of Children and Family Services or |
the Director's designee. |
(3) A member appointed by the Governor from the Office |
of the Governor who has a focus on mental health issues. |
(4) Two members from the House of Representatives, |
appointed one each by the Speaker of the House of |
Representatives and the Minority Leader of the House of |
Representatives. |
|
(5) Two members of the Senate, appointed one each by |
the President of the Senate and the Minority Leader of the |
Senate. |
(6) One member who is a former youth in care, |
appointed by the Governor. |
(7) One representative from the managed care entity |
managing the YouthCare program, appointed by the Director |
of Healthcare and Family Services. |
Task Force members shall serve without compensation but |
may be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the |
performance of their duties. |
(c) The Task Force shall meet at least once each month |
beginning no later than July 1, 2022 and at other times as |
determined by the Task Force. The Task Force may hold |
electronic meetings and a member of the Task Force shall be |
deemed present for the purposes of establishing a quorum and |
voting. |
(d) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services, in |
conjunction with the Department of Children and Family |
Services, shall provide administrative and other support to |
the Task Force. |
(e) The Task Force shall prepare and submit to the |
Governor and the General Assembly at the end of each quarter a |
report that summarizes its work. The Task Force shall submit |
its final report to the Governor and the General Assembly no |
later than December 31, 2026 2025. Upon submission of its |
|
final report, the Task Force is dissolved. |
(f) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2027 2026. |
(Source: P.A. 102-898, eff. 5-25-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; |
103-811, eff. 8-9-24.) |
Section 1-15. The Grocery Initiative Act is amended by |
changing Section 10 as follows: |
(20 ILCS 750/10) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026) |
Sec. 10. Grocery Initiative Study. The Department shall, |
subject to appropriation, study food insecurity in urban and |
rural food deserts. The study may include an exploration of |
the reasons for current market failures, potential policy |
solutions, geographic trends, and the need for independent |
grocers, and it shall identify communities at risk of becoming |
food deserts. The study may also include a disparity study to |
assess the need for aspirational goals for ownership among |
minority, women, and persons with a disability as defined in |
the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons |
with Disabilities Act. The Department may enter into |
contracts, grants, or other agreements to complete this study. |
This report shall be submitted to the General Assembly by |
December 31, 2026 2024. This Section is repealed on January 1, |
2027 2026. |
(Source: P.A. 103-561, eff. 1-1-24.) |
|
Section 1-20. The Illinois Lottery Law is amended by |
changing Sections 21.4, 21.5, and 21.8 as follows: |
(20 ILCS 1605/21.4) |
Sec. 21.4. Joint Special Instant Scratch-off game. |
(a) The Department shall offer a joint special instant |
scratch-off game for the benefit of the special causes |
identified in Sections 21.5, 21.6, 21.7, 21.8, 21.9, 21.10, |
21.11, 21.13, 21.15, and 21.16. The operation of the game |
shall be governed by this Section and any rules adopted by the |
Department. The game shall commence on January 1, 2024 or as |
soon thereafter, at the discretion of the Director, as is |
reasonably practical and shall be discontinued on January 1, |
2027. If any provision of this Section is inconsistent with |
any other provision in the Act, then this Section governs. |
(b) Once the joint special instant scratch-off game is |
used to fund a special cause, the game will be used to fund the |
special cause for the remainder of the special causes' |
existence per the causes' respective Section of this Act. |
(c) New specialty tickets and causes authorized by this |
Act shall be funded by the joint special instant scratch-off |
game. New specialty tickets and causes after February 1, 2024 |
must have a sunset date. The Department shall be limited to |
supporting no more than 10 causes in total at any given time. |
(d) Net revenue received from the sale of the joint |
|
special instant scratch-off game for the purposes of this |
Section shall be divided equally among the special causes the |
game benefits. At the direction of the Department, the State |
Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall |
transfer from the State Lottery Fund the net revenue to the |
specific fund identified for each special cause in accordance |
with the special cause's respective Section in this Act. As |
used in this Section, "net revenue" means the total amount for |
which tickets have been sold less the sum of the amount paid |
out in prizes and to retailers, and direct and estimated |
administrative expenses incurred in operation of the ticket. |
(Source: P.A. 103-381, eff. 7-28-23; 103-574, eff. 12-8-23.) |
(20 ILCS 1605/21.5) |
Sec. 21.5. Carolyn Adams Ticket For The Cure. |
(a) The Department shall offer a special instant |
scratch-off game with the title of "Carolyn Adams Ticket For |
The Cure". The game shall commence on January 1, 2006 or as |
soon thereafter, in the discretion of the Director, as is |
reasonably practical, and shall be discontinued on December |
31, 2026. The operation of the game shall be governed by this |
Act and any rules adopted by the Department. The Department |
must consult with the Carolyn Adams Ticket For The Cure Board, |
which is established under Section 2310-347 of the Department |
of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil |
Administrative Code of Illinois, regarding the design and |
|
promotion of the game. |
(b) The Carolyn Adams Ticket For The Cure Grant Fund is |
created as a special fund in the State treasury. The net |
revenue from the Carolyn Adams Ticket For The Cure special |
instant scratch-off game shall be deposited into the Fund for |
appropriation by the General Assembly solely to the Department |
of Public Health for the purpose of making grants to public or |
private entities in Illinois for the purpose of funding breast |
cancer research, and supportive services for breast cancer |
survivors and those impacted by breast cancer and breast |
cancer education. In awarding grants, the Department of Public |
Health shall consider criteria that includes, but is not |
limited to, projects and initiatives that address disparities |
in incidence and mortality rates of breast cancer, based on |
data from the Illinois Cancer Registry, and populations facing |
barriers to care. The Department of Public Health shall, |
before grants are awarded, provide copies of all grant |
applications to the Carolyn Adams Ticket For The Cure Board, |
receive and review the Board's recommendations and comments, |
and consult with the Board regarding the grants. For purposes |
of this Section, the term "research" includes, without |
limitation, expenditures to develop and advance the |
understanding, techniques, and modalities effective in the |
detection, prevention, screening, and treatment of breast |
cancer and may include clinical trials. The grant funds may |
not be used for institutional, organizational, or |
|
community-based overhead costs, indirect costs, or levies. |
Moneys received for the purposes of this Section, |
including, without limitation, net revenue from the special |
instant scratch-off game and gifts, grants, and awards from |
any public or private entity, must be deposited into the Fund. |
Any interest earned on moneys in the Fund must be deposited |
into the Fund. |
As used in this subsection, "net revenue" means the total |
amount for which tickets have been sold less the sum of the |
amount paid out in prizes and to retailers, and direct and |
estimated administrative expenses of the Department solely |
related to the Ticket For The Cure game. |
(c) During the time that tickets are sold for the Carolyn |
Adams Ticket For The Cure game, the Department shall not |
unreasonably diminish the efforts devoted to marketing any |
other instant scratch-off lottery game. |
(d) The Department may adopt any rules necessary to |
implement and administer the provisions of this Section. |
(Source: P.A. 103-381, eff. 7-28-23.) |
(20 ILCS 1605/21.8) |
Sec. 21.8. Quality of Life scratch-off game. |
(a) The Department shall offer a special instant |
scratch-off game with the title of "Quality of Life". The game |
shall commence on July 1, 2007 or as soon thereafter, in the |
discretion of the Director, as is reasonably practical, and |
|
shall be discontinued on December 31, 2025. The operation of |
the game is governed by this Act and by any rules adopted by |
the Department. The Department must consult with the Quality |
of Life Board, which is established under Section 2310-348 of |
the Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the |
Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, regarding the design |
and promotion of the game. |
(b) The Quality of Life Endowment Fund is created as a |
special fund in the State treasury. The net revenue from the |
Quality of Life special instant scratch-off game must be |
deposited into the Fund for appropriation by the General |
Assembly solely to the Department of Public Health for the |
purpose of HIV/AIDS-prevention education and for making grants |
to public or private entities in Illinois for the purpose of |
funding organizations that serve the highest at-risk |
categories for contracting HIV or developing AIDS. Grants |
shall be targeted to serve at-risk populations in proportion |
to the distribution of recent reported Illinois HIV/AIDS cases |
among risk groups as reported by the Illinois Department of |
Public Health. The recipient organizations must be engaged in |
HIV/AIDS-prevention education and HIV/AIDS healthcare |
treatment. The Department must, before grants are awarded, |
provide copies of all grant applications to the Quality of |
Life Board, receive and review the Board's recommendations and |
comments, and consult with the Board regarding the grants. |
Organizational size will determine an organization's |
|
competitive slot in the "Request for Proposal" process. |
Organizations with an annual budget of $300,000 or less will |
compete with like size organizations for 50% of the Quality of |
Life annual fund. Organizations with an annual budget of |
$300,001 to $700,000 will compete with like organizations for |
25% of the Quality of Life annual fund, and organizations with |
an annual budget of $700,001 and upward will compete with like |
organizations for 25% of the Quality of Life annual fund. The |
lottery may designate a percentage of proceeds for marketing |
purposes. The grant funds may not be used for institutional, |
organizational, or community-based overhead costs, indirect |
costs, or levies. |
Grants awarded from the Fund are intended to augment the |
current and future State funding for the prevention and |
treatment of HIV/AIDS and are not intended to replace that |
funding. |
Moneys received for the purposes of this Section, |
including, without limitation, net revenue from the special |
instant scratch-off game and gifts, grants, and awards from |
any public or private entity, must be deposited into the Fund. |
Any interest earned on moneys in the Fund must be deposited |
into the Fund. |
As used in this subsection, "net revenue" means the total |
amount for which tickets have been sold less the sum of the |
amount paid out in prizes and to retailers, and direct and |
estimated administrative expenses of the Department solely |
|
related to the Quality of Life game. |
(c) During the time that tickets are sold for the Quality |
of Life game, the Department shall not unreasonably diminish |
the efforts devoted to marketing any other instant scratch-off |
lottery game. |
(d) The Department may adopt any rules necessary to |
implement and administer the provisions of this Section in |
consultation with the Quality of Life Board. |
(Source: P.A. 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-381, eff. 7-28-23.) |
Section 1-25. The Department of Public Health Powers and |
Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is |
amended by changing Section 2310-542 as follows: |
(20 ILCS 2310/2310-542) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026) |
Sec. 2310-542. Safe gun storage public awareness campaign. |
(a) Subject to appropriation, the Department shall develop |
and implement a comprehensive 2-year statewide safe gun |
storage public awareness campaign. The campaign shall include |
the following: |
(1) Sustained and focused messaging over the course of |
the 2-year campaign period. |
(2) Messages paired with information about enforcement |
or incentives for safe gun storage. |
(3) Geographic and cultural considerations. |
|
(b) The campaign shall be divided into the following 3 |
phases: |
(1) A statewide messaging strategy that shall develop |
research-based, culturally appropriate messaging for |
awareness of gun safety, reducing access to lethal means, |
and encouraging safe storage. The campaign shall include |
formats such as paid advertising on Chicago Transit |
Authority trains, bus stops, billboards, digital or social |
media campaigns, radio, and other public education and |
outreach. |
(2) A gun lock and gun safe distribution campaign and |
gun buy-back programs. This phase shall require the |
following: |
(A) Developing a focused strategy to distribute, |
through community-based organizations, gun locks and |
gun safes in areas most affected by gun violence. |
(B) Pairing gun lock distribution with brief |
counseling or education sessions, which has been shown |
to significantly increase safe storage practices. |
(C) Developing an education and training program |
on safe storage counseling and screening for health |
care professionals, including pediatric primary care |
and emergency room departments. |
(D) Developing education and training on the |
Firearms Restraining Order Act for practitioners, law |
enforcement, and the general public. |
|
(E) Focusing on suicide prevention, youth or young |
adult survivors of gun violence, and families at risk |
due to domestic violence. |
(F) Incorporating gun buy-back opportunities in |
partnership with law enforcement, community-based |
organizations, and other local stakeholders. |
(3) A comprehensive evaluation to measure changes in |
gun safety behaviors and the overall impact and |
effectiveness of the campaign to promote safety. Metrics |
to be measured include, but are not limited to, the |
following: |
(A) Changes in parent behavior and perception. |
(B) Media campaign metrics and digital analytics. |
(C) The number of people reached through each |
strategy. |
(D) The number of gun locks and gun safes |
distributed. |
(E) Changes in intentional and unintentional |
firearm injury. |
(c) This Section is repealed on July January 1, 2026. |
(Source: P.A. 102-1067, eff. 1-1-23.) |
Section 1-30. The Illinois Power Agency Act is amended by |
changing Section 1-130 as follows: |
(20 ILCS 3855/1-130) |
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026) |
Sec. 1-130. Home rule preemption. |
(a) The authorization to impose any new taxes or fees |
specifically related to the generation of electricity by, the |
capacity to generate electricity by, or the emissions into the |
atmosphere by electric generating facilities after the |
effective date of this Act is an exclusive power and function |
of the State. A home rule unit may not levy any new taxes or |
fees specifically related to the generation of electricity by, |
the capacity to generate electricity by, or the emissions into |
the atmosphere by electric generating facilities after the |
effective date of this Act. This Section is a denial and |
limitation on home rule powers and functions under subsection |
(g) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution. |
(b) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2028 January 1, |
2026. |
(Source: P.A. 102-671, eff. 11-30-21; 102-1109, eff. 12-21-22; |
103-563, eff. 11-17-23; 103-1059, eff. 12-20-24.) |
Section 1-35. The Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act |
is amended by changing Section 3.6 as follows: |
(20 ILCS 3960/3.6) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 25, 2026) |
Sec. 3.6. Facilities maintained or operated by a State |
agency. |
|
(a) For the purposes of this Section, "Department" means |
the Department of Veterans Affairs. |
(b) Except for the requirements set forth in subsection |
(c), any construction, modification, establishment, or change |
in categories of service of a health care facility funded |
through an appropriation from the General Assembly and |
maintained or operated by the Department is not subject to |
requirements of this Act. The Department is subject to this |
Act when the Department discontinues a health care facility or |
category of service. |
(c) The Department must notify the Board in writing of any |
appropriation by the General Assembly for the construction, |
modification, establishment or change in categories of |
service, excluding discontinuation of a health care facility |
or categories of service, maintained or operated by the |
Department of Veterans Affairs. The Department of Veterans |
Affairs must include with the written notification the |
following information: (i) the estimated service capacity of |
the health care facility; (ii) the location of the project or |
the intended location if not identified by law; and (iii) the |
date the health care facility is estimated to be opened. The |
Department must also notify the Board in writing when the |
facility has been licensed by the Department of Public Health |
or any other licensing body. The Department shall submit to |
the Board, on behalf of the health care facility, any annual |
facility questionnaires as defined in Section 13 of this Act |
|
or any requests for information by the Board. |
(d) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2029 5 years after |
the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 102nd General |
Assembly. |
(Source: P.A. 104-234, eff. 8-15-25.) |
Section 1-40. The Hydrogen Economy Act is amended by |
changing Section 95 as follows: |
(20 ILCS 4122/95) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 1, 2026) |
Sec. 95. Repealer. This Act is repealed on July 1, 2028 |
June 1, 2026. |
(Source: P.A. 102-1086, eff. 6-10-22; 102-1129, eff. 2-10-23.) |
Section 1-45. The Community Land Trust Task Force Act is |
amended by changing Sections 30 and 35 as follows: |
(20 ILCS 4126/30) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2025) |
Sec. 30. Report. The Task Force shall submit its final |
report to the Governor and General Assembly no later than |
December 31, 2026 2025. The final report shall be made |
available on the Illinois Housing Development Authority's |
website for viewing by the general public. |
(Source: P.A. 103-250, eff. 6-30-23; 103-811, eff. 8-9-24.) |
|
(20 ILCS 4126/35) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2025) |
Sec. 35. Dissolution; repeal. The Task Force is dissolved |
and this Act is repealed on December 31, 2026 2025. |
(Source: P.A. 103-250, eff. 6-30-23; 103-811, eff. 8-9-24.) |
Section 1-50. The Community-Based Corrections Task Force |
Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows: |
(20 ILCS 4134/20) |
Sec. 20. Report. |
(a) On or before July 1, 2026 December 31, 2025, the Task |
Force shall publish a final report of its findings, |
developments, and recommendations and after the publication of |
its final report the Task Force shall be dissolved. The report |
shall, at a minimum, detail findings and recommendations |
related to the duties of the Task Force and the following: |
(1) information and recommendations related to the |
benefits of community-based corrections and specialty |
courts; and |
(2) the development and implementation of a new |
community-based corrections program. |
(b) The final report shall be shared with the following: |
(1) the General Assembly; and |
(2) the Offices of the Governor and Lieutenant |
|
Governor. |
(Source: P.A. 103-982, eff. 8-9-24.) |
Section 1-52. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by |
changing Sections 1-15.93 and 30-30 as follows: |
(30 ILCS 500/1-15.93) |
Sec. 1-15.93. Single prime. "Single prime" means the |
design-bid-build procurement delivery method for a building |
construction project in which the Capital Development Board or |
a public institution of higher education, as defined in |
Section 1-13 of this Code, is the construction agency |
procuring 2 or more subdivisions of work enumerated in |
paragraphs (1) through (5) of subsection (a) of Section 30-30 |
of this Code under a single contract. The provisions of this |
Section are inoperative for public institutions of higher |
education on and after January 1, 2027 2026. |
(Source: P.A. 102-671, eff. 11-30-21; 102-1119, eff. 1-23-23; |
103-570, eff. 1-1-24.) |
(30 ILCS 500/30-30) |
Sec. 30-30. Design-bid-build construction. |
(a) Except as provided in subsection (a-5), for building |
construction contracts in excess of $250,000, separate |
specifications may be prepared for all equipment, labor, and |
materials in connection with the following 5 subdivisions of |
|
the work to be performed: |
(1) plumbing; |
(2) heating, piping, refrigeration, and automatic |
temperature control systems, including the testing and |
balancing of those systems; |
(3) ventilating and distribution systems for |
conditioned air, including the testing and balancing of |
those systems; |
(4) electric wiring; and |
(5) general contract work. |
Except as provided in subsection (a-5), the specifications |
may be so drawn as to permit separate and independent bidding |
upon each of the 5 subdivisions of work. All contracts awarded |
for any part thereof may award the 5 subdivisions of work |
separately to responsible and reliable persons, firms, or |
corporations engaged in these classes of work. The contracts, |
at the discretion of the construction agency, may be assigned |
to the successful bidder on the general contract work or to the |
successful bidder on the subdivision of work designated by the |
construction agency before the bidding as the prime |
subdivision of work, provided that all payments will be made |
directly to the contractors for the 5 subdivisions of work |
upon compliance with the conditions of the contract. |
For single prime projects: (i) the bid of the successful |
low bidder shall identify the name of the subcontractor, if |
any, and the bid proposal costs for each of the 5 subdivisions |
|
of work set forth in this Section; (ii) the contract entered |
into with the successful bidder shall provide that no |
identified subcontractor may be terminated without the written |
consent of the Capital Development Board; (iii) the contract |
shall comply with the disadvantaged business practices of the |
Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with |
Disabilities Act and the equal employment practices of Section |
2-105 of the Illinois Human Rights Act; and (iv) the Capital |
Development Board shall submit an annual report to the General |
Assembly and Governor on the bidding, award, and performance |
of all single prime projects. |
Until December 31, 2023, for building construction |
projects with a total construction cost valued at $5,000,000 |
or less, the Capital Development Board shall not use the |
single prime procurement delivery method for more than 50% of |
the total number of projects bid for each fiscal year. Until |
December 31, 2023, any project with a total construction cost |
valued greater than $5,000,000 may be bid using single prime |
at the discretion of the Executive Director of the Capital |
Development Board. |
For contracts entered into on or after January 1, 2024, |
the Capital Development Board shall determine whether the |
single prime procurement delivery method is to be pursued. |
Before electing to use single prime on a project, the Capital |
Development Board must make a written determination that must |
include a description as to the particular advantages of the |
|
single prime procurement method for that project and an |
evaluation of the items in paragraphs (1) through (4). The |
chief procurement officer must review the Capital Development |
Board's determination and consider the adequacy of information |
in paragraphs (1) through (4) to determine whether the Capital |
Development Board may proceed with single prime. Approval by |
the chief procurement officer shall not be unreasonably |
withheld. The following factors must be considered by the |
chief procurement officer in any determination: |
(1) The benefit that using the single prime |
procurement method will have on the Capital Development |
Board's ability to increase participation of |
minority-owned firms, woman-owned firms, firms owned by |
persons with a disability, and veteran-owned firms. |
(2) The likelihood that single prime will be in the |
best interest of the State by providing a material savings |
of time or cost over the multiple prime delivery system. |
The best interest of the State justification must show the |
specific benefits of using the single prime method, |
including documentation of the estimates or scheduling |
impacts of any of the following: project complexity and |
trade coordination required, length of project, |
availability of skilled workforce, geographic area, |
project timelines, project budget, ability to secure |
minority, women, persons with disabilities and veteran |
participation, or other information. |
|
(3) The type and size of the project and its |
suitability to the single prime procurement method. |
(4) Whether the project will comply with the |
underrepresented business and equal employment practices |
of the State, as established in the Business Enterprise |
for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act, |
Section 45-57 of this Code, and Section 2-105 of the |
Illinois Human Rights Act. |
If the chief procurement officer finds that the Capital |
Development Board's written determination is insufficient, the |
Capital Development Board shall have the opportunity to cure |
its determination. Within 15 days of receiving approval from |
the chief procurement officer, the Capital Development Board |
shall provide an advisory copy of the written determination to |
the Procurement Policy Board and the Commission on Equity and |
Inclusion. The Capital Development Board must maintain the |
full record of determination for 5 years. |
(a-5) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory |
Act of the 104th 102nd General Assembly and through December |
31, 2026 2025, for single prime projects in which a public |
institution of higher education is a construction agency |
awarding building construction contracts in excess of |
$250,000, separate specifications may be prepared for all |
equipment, labor, and materials in connection with the 5 |
subdivisions of work enumerated in subsection (a). Any public |
institution of higher education contract awarded for any part |
|
thereof may award 2 or more of the 5 subdivisions of work |
together or separately to responsible and reliable persons, |
firms, or corporations engaged in these classes of work if: |
(i) the public institution of higher education has submitted |
to the Procurement Policy Board and the Commission on Equity |
and Inclusion a written notice that includes the reasons for |
using the single prime method and an explanation of why the use |
of that method is in the best interest of the State and |
arranges to have the notice posted on the institution's online |
procurement webpage and its online procurement bulletin at |
least 3 business days following submission to the Procurement |
Policy Board and the Commission on Equity and Inclusion; (ii) |
the successful low bidder has prequalified with the public |
institution of higher education; (iii) the bid of the |
successful low bidder identifies the name of the |
subcontractor, if any, and the bid proposal costs for each of |
the 5 subdivisions of work set forth in subsection (a); (iv) |
the contract entered into with the successful bidder provides |
that no identified subcontractor may be terminated without the |
written consent of the public institution of higher education; |
and (v) the successful low bidder has prequalified with the |
University of Illinois or with the Capital Development Board. |
For building construction projects with a total |
construction cost valued at $20,000,000 or less, public |
institutions of higher education shall not use the single |
prime delivery method for more than 50% of the total number of |
|
projects bid for each fiscal year. Projects with a total |
construction cost valued at $20,000,000 or more may be bid |
using the single prime delivery method at the discretion of |
the public institution of higher education. With respect to |
any construction project described in this subsection (a-5), |
the public institution of higher education shall: (i) specify |
in writing as a public record that the project shall comply |
with the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and |
Persons with Disabilities Act and the equal employment |
practices of Section 2-105 of the Illinois Human Rights Act; |
and (ii) report annually to the Governor, General Assembly, |
Procurement Policy Board, and Auditor General on the bidding, |
award, and performance of all single prime projects. On and |
after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 102nd |
General Assembly, the public institution of higher education |
may award in each fiscal year single prime contracts with an |
aggregate total value of no more than $100,000,000. The Board |
of Trustees of the University of Illinois may award in each |
fiscal year single prime contracts with an aggregate total |
value of not more than $300,000,000. |
(b) For public institutions of higher education, the |
provisions of this subsection are operative on and after |
January 1, 2026. For building construction contracts in excess |
of $250,000, separate specifications shall be prepared for all |
equipment, labor, and materials in connection with the |
following 5 subdivisions of the work to be performed: |
|
(1) plumbing; |
(2) heating, piping, refrigeration, and automatic |
temperature control systems, including the testing and |
balancing of those systems; |
(3) ventilating and distribution systems for |
conditioned air, including the testing and balancing of |
those systems; |
(4) electric wiring; and |
(5) general contract work. |
The specifications must be so drawn as to permit separate |
and independent bidding upon each of the 5 subdivisions of |
work. All contracts awarded for any part thereof shall award |
the 5 subdivisions of work separately to responsible and |
reliable persons, firms, or corporations engaged in these |
classes of work. The contracts, at the discretion of the |
construction agency, may be assigned to the successful bidder |
on the general contract work or to the successful bidder on the |
subdivision of work designated by the construction agency |
before the bidding as the prime subdivision of work, provided |
that all payments will be made directly to the contractors for |
the 5 subdivisions of work upon compliance with the conditions |
of the contract. |
(Source: P.A. 102-671, eff. 11-30-21; 102-1119, eff. 1-23-23; |
103-570, eff. 1-1-24.) |
Section 1-55. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by |
|
changing Sections 221 and 231 as follows: |
(35 ILCS 5/221) |
Sec. 221. Rehabilitation costs; qualified historic |
properties; River Edge Redevelopment Zone. |
(a) For taxable years that begin on or after January 1, |
2012 and begin prior to January 1, 2018, there shall be allowed |
a tax credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) |
of Section 201 of this Act in an amount equal to 25% of |
qualified expenditures incurred by a qualified taxpayer during |
the taxable year in the restoration and preservation of a |
qualified historic structure located in a River Edge |
Redevelopment Zone pursuant to a qualified rehabilitation |
plan, provided that the total amount of such expenditures (i) |
must equal $5,000 or more and (ii) must exceed 50% of the |
purchase price of the property. |
(a-1) For taxable years that begin on or after January 1, |
2018 and end prior to January 1, 2029 2027, there shall be |
allowed a tax credit against the tax imposed by subsections |
(a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act in an aggregate amount |
equal to 25% of qualified expenditures incurred by a qualified |
taxpayer in the restoration and preservation of a qualified |
historic structure located in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone |
pursuant to a qualified rehabilitation plan, provided that the |
total amount of such expenditures must (i) equal $5,000 or |
more and (ii) exceed the adjusted basis of the qualified |
|
historic structure on the first day the qualified |
rehabilitation plan begins. For any rehabilitation project, |
regardless of duration or number of phases, the project's |
compliance with the foregoing provisions (i) and (ii) shall be |
determined based on the aggregate amount of qualified |
expenditures for the entire project and may include |
expenditures incurred under subsection (a), this subsection, |
or both subsection (a) and this subsection. If the qualified |
rehabilitation plan spans multiple years, the aggregate credit |
for the entire project shall be allowed in the last taxable |
year, except for phased rehabilitation projects, which may |
receive credits upon completion of each phase. Before |
obtaining the first phased credit: (A) the total amount of |
such expenditures must meet the requirements of provisions (i) |
and (ii) of this subsection; (B) the rehabilitated portion of |
the qualified historic structure must be placed in service; |
and (C) the requirements of subsection (b) must be met. |
(a-2) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, |
2021 and ending prior to January 1, 2029 2027, there shall be |
allowed a tax credit against the tax imposed by subsections |
(a) and (b) of Section 201 as provided in Section 10-10.3 of |
the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act. The credit allowed |
under this subsection (a-2) shall apply only to taxpayers that |
make a capital investment of at least $1,000,000 in a |
qualified rehabilitation plan. |
The credit or credits may not reduce the taxpayer's |
|
liability to less than zero. If the amount of the credit or |
credits exceeds the taxpayer's liability, the excess may be |
carried forward and applied against the taxpayer's liability |
in succeeding calendar years in the manner provided under |
paragraph (4) of Section 211 of this Act. The credit or credits |
shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a tax |
liability. If there are credits from more than one taxable |
year that are available to offset a liability, the earlier |
credit shall be applied first. |
For partners, shareholders of Subchapter S corporations, |
and owners of limited liability companies, if the liability |
company is treated as a partnership for the purposes of |
federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a |
credit under this Section to be determined in accordance with |
the determination of income and distributive share of income |
under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal |
Revenue Code. |
The total aggregate amount of credits awarded under the |
Blue Collar Jobs Act (Article 20 of this amendatory Act of the |
101st General Assembly) shall not exceed $20,000,000 in any |
State fiscal year. |
(b) To obtain a tax credit pursuant to this Section, the |
taxpayer must apply with the Department of Natural Resources. |
The Department of Natural Resources shall determine the amount |
of eligible rehabilitation costs and expenses in addition to |
the amount of the River Edge construction jobs credit within |
|
45 days of receipt of a complete application. The taxpayer |
must submit a certification of costs prepared by an |
independent certified public accountant that certifies (i) the |
project expenses, (ii) whether those expenses are qualified |
expenditures, and (iii) that the qualified expenditures exceed |
the adjusted basis of the qualified historic structure on the |
first day the qualified rehabilitation plan commenced. The |
Department of Natural Resources is authorized, but not |
required, to accept this certification of costs to determine |
the amount of qualified expenditures and the amount of the |
credit. The Department of Natural Resources shall provide |
guidance as to the minimum standards to be followed in the |
preparation of such certification. The Department of Natural |
Resources and the National Park Service shall determine |
whether the rehabilitation is consistent with the United |
States Secretary of the Interior's Standards for |
Rehabilitation. |
(b-1) Upon completion of the project and approval of the |
complete application, the Department of Natural Resources |
shall issue a single certificate in the amount of the eligible |
credits equal to 25% of qualified expenditures incurred during |
the eligible taxable years, as defined in subsections (a) and |
(a-1), excepting any credits awarded under subsection (a) |
prior to January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act |
100-629) and any phased credits issued prior to the eligible |
taxable year under subsection (a-1). At the time the |
|
certificate is issued, an issuance fee up to the maximum |
amount of 2% of the amount of the credits issued by the |
certificate may be collected from the applicant to administer |
the provisions of this Section. If collected, this issuance |
fee shall be deposited into the Historic Property |
Administrative Fund, a special fund created in the State |
treasury. Subject to appropriation, moneys in the Historic |
Property Administrative Fund shall be provided to the |
Department of Natural Resources as reimbursement for the costs |
associated with administering this Section. |
(c) The taxpayer must attach the certificate to the tax |
return on which the credits are to be claimed. The tax credit |
under this Section may not reduce the taxpayer's liability to |
less than zero. If the amount of the credit exceeds the tax |
liability for the year, the excess credit may be carried |
forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years |
following the excess credit year. |
(c-1) Subject to appropriation, moneys in the Historic |
Property Administrative Fund shall be used, on a biennial |
basis beginning at the end of the second fiscal year after |
January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-629), to |
hire a qualified third party to prepare a biennial report to |
assess the overall economic impact to the State from the |
qualified rehabilitation projects under this Section completed |
in that year and in previous years. The overall economic |
impact shall include at least: (1) the direct and indirect or |
|
induced economic impacts of completed projects; (2) temporary, |
permanent, and construction jobs created; (3) sales, income, |
and property tax generation before, during construction, and |
after completion; and (4) indirect neighborhood impact after |
completion. The report shall be submitted to the Governor and |
the General Assembly. The report to the General Assembly shall |
be filed with the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the |
Secretary of the Senate in electronic form only, in the manner |
that the Clerk and the Secretary shall direct. |
(c-2) The Department of Natural Resources may adopt rules |
to implement this Section in addition to the rules expressly |
authorized in this Section. |
(d) As used in this Section, the following terms have the |
following meanings. |
"Phased rehabilitation" means a project that is completed |
in phases, as defined under Section 47 of the federal Internal |
Revenue Code and pursuant to National Park Service regulations |
at 36 C.F.R. 67. |
"Placed in service" means the date when the property is |
placed in a condition or state of readiness and availability |
for a specifically assigned function as defined under Section |
47 of the federal Internal Revenue Code and federal Treasury |
Regulation Sections 1.46 and 1.48. |
"Qualified expenditure" means all the costs and expenses |
defined as qualified rehabilitation expenditures under Section |
47 of the federal Internal Revenue Code that were incurred in |
|
connection with a qualified historic structure. |
"Qualified historic structure" means a certified historic |
structure as defined under Section 47(c)(3) of the federal |
Internal Revenue Code. |
"Qualified rehabilitation plan" means a project that is |
approved by the Department of Natural Resources and the |
National Park Service as being consistent with the United |
States Secretary of the Interior's Standards for |
Rehabilitation. |
"Qualified taxpayer" means the owner of the qualified |
historic structure or any other person who qualifies for the |
federal rehabilitation credit allowed by Section 47 of the |
federal Internal Revenue Code with respect to that qualified |
historic structure. Partners, shareholders of subchapter S |
corporations, and owners of limited liability companies (if |
the limited liability company is treated as a partnership for |
purposes of federal and State income taxation) are entitled to |
a credit under this Section to be determined in accordance |
with the determination of income and distributive share of |
income under Sections 702 and 703 and subchapter S of the |
Internal Revenue Code, provided that credits granted to a |
partnership, a limited liability company taxed as a |
partnership, or other multiple owners of property shall be |
passed through to the partners, members, or owners |
respectively on a pro rata basis or pursuant to an executed |
agreement among the partners, members, or owners documenting |
|
any alternate distribution method. |
(Source: P.A. 101-9, eff. 6-5-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; |
102-16, eff. 6-17-21.) |
(35 ILCS 5/231) |
Sec. 231. Apprenticeship education expense credit. |
(a) As used in this Section: |
"Accredited training organization" means an organization |
that: |
(1) incurs costs related to training apprentice |
employees; |
(2) maintains an apprenticeship program approved by |
the United States Department of Labor, Office of |
Apprenticeships, that results in an industry-recognized |
credential; and either |
(3) is affiliated with a public or nonpublic secondary |
school in Illinois and is: |
(A) an institution of higher education that |
provides a program that leads to an |
industry-recognized postsecondary credential or |
degree; |
(B) an entity that carries out programs that |
are registered under the federal National |
Apprenticeship Act; or |
(C) a public or private provider of a program |
of training services, including, but not limited to, a |
|
joint labor-management organization; or |
(4) is not affiliated with a public or nonpublic |
secondary school in Illinois but receives preapproval from |
the Department to receive tax credits under this Section. |
"Department" means the Department of Commerce and Economic |
Opportunity. |
"Employer" means an Illinois taxpayer who is the employer |
of the qualifying apprentice. |
"Qualifying apprentice" means an individual who: (i) is a |
resident of the State of Illinois; (ii) is at least 16 years |
old at the close of the school year for which a credit is |
sought; (iii) during the school year for which a credit is |
sought, was a full-time apprentice enrolled in an |
apprenticeship program which is registered with the United |
States Department of Labor, Office of Apprenticeship; and (iv) |
is employed in Illinois by the taxpayer who is the employer. |
"Qualified education expense" means the amount incurred on |
behalf of a qualifying apprentice not to exceed $3,500 for |
tuition, instructional materials, fees (including, but not |
limited to, book, license, and lab fees), or other expenses |
that are directly related to training the apprentices and that |
are preapproved by the Department. All expenses must be paid |
to or incurred for training at the school, community college, |
or organization where the apprentice receives training. |
(b) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, |
2020, and beginning on or before January 1, 2027 January 1, |
|
2026, the employer of one or more qualifying apprentices shall |
be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) |
and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act. The |
credit shall be equal to $3,500 per qualifying apprentice. A |
taxpayer shall be entitled to an additional $1,500 credit |
against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section |
201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act if (i) the qualifying |
apprentice resides in an underserved area as defined in |
Section 5-5 of the Economic Development for a Growing Economy |
Tax Credit Act during the school year for which a credit is |
sought by an employer or (ii) the employer's principal place |
of business is located in an underserved area, as defined in |
Section 5-5 of the Economic Development for a Growing Economy |
Tax Credit Act. In no event shall a credit under this Section |
reduce the taxpayer's liability under this Act to less than |
zero. For taxable years ending before December 31, 2023, for |
partners, shareholders of Subchapter S corporations, and |
owners of limited liability companies, if the liability |
company is treated as a partnership for purposes of federal |
and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a credit |
under this Section to be determined in accordance with the |
determination of income and distributive share of income under |
Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue |
Code. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2023, |
partners and shareholders of subchapter S corporations are |
entitled to a credit under this Section as provided in Section |
|
251. |
(c) The Department shall implement a program to certify |
applicants for an apprenticeship credit under this Section. |
Upon satisfactory review, the Department shall issue a tax |
credit certificate to an employer incurring costs on behalf of |
a qualifying apprentice stating the amount of the tax credit |
to which the employer is entitled. If the employer is seeking a |
tax credit for multiple qualifying apprentices, the Department |
may issue a single tax credit certificate that encompasses the |
aggregate total of tax credits for qualifying apprentices for |
a single employer. |
(d) The Department, in addition to those powers granted |
under the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, is granted |
and shall have all the powers necessary or convenient to carry |
out and effectuate the purposes and provisions of this |
Section, including, but not limited to, power and authority |
to: |
(1) Adopt rules deemed necessary and appropriate for |
the administration of this Section; establish forms for |
applications, notifications, contracts, or any other |
agreements; and accept applications at any time during the |
year and require that all applications be submitted via |
the Internet. The Department shall require that |
applications be submitted in electronic form. |
(2) Provide guidance and assistance to applicants |
pursuant to the provisions of this Section and cooperate |
|
with applicants to promote, foster, and support job |
creation within the State. |
(3) Enter into agreements and memoranda of |
understanding for participation of and engage in |
cooperation with agencies of the federal government, units |
of local government, universities, research foundations or |
institutions, regional economic development corporations, |
or other organizations for the purposes of this Section. |
(4) Gather information and conduct inquiries, in the |
manner and by the methods it deems desirable, including, |
without limitation, gathering information with respect to |
applicants for the purpose of making any designations or |
certifications necessary or desirable or to gather |
information in furtherance of the purposes of this Act. |
(5) Establish, negotiate, and effectuate any term, |
agreement, or other document with any person necessary or |
appropriate to accomplish the purposes of this Section, |
and consent, subject to the provisions of any agreement |
with another party, to the modification or restructuring |
of any agreement to which the Department is a party. |
(6) Provide for sufficient personnel to permit |
administration, staffing, operation, and related support |
required to adequately discharge its duties and |
responsibilities described in this Section from funds made |
available through charges to applicants or from funds as |
may be appropriated by the General Assembly for the |
|
administration of this Section. |
(7) Require applicants, upon written request, to issue |
any necessary authorization to the appropriate federal, |
State, or local authority or any other person for the |
release to the Department of information requested by the |
Department, including, but not be limited to, financial |
reports, returns, or records relating to the applicant or |
to the amount of credit allowable under this Section. |
(8) Require that an applicant shall, at all times, |
keep proper books of record and account in accordance with |
generally accepted accounting principles consistently |
applied, with the books, records, or papers related to the |
agreement in the custody or control of the applicant open |
for reasonable Department inspection and audits, |
including, without limitation, the making of copies of the |
books, records, or papers. |
(9) Take whatever actions are necessary or appropriate |
to protect the State's interest in the event of |
bankruptcy, default, foreclosure, or noncompliance with |
the terms and conditions of financial assistance or |
participation required under this Section or any agreement |
entered into under this Section, including the power to |
sell, dispose of, lease, or rent, upon terms and |
conditions determined by the Department to be appropriate, |
real or personal property that the Department may recover |
as a result of these actions. |
|
(e) The Department, in consultation with the Department of |
Revenue, shall adopt rules to administer this Section. The |
aggregate amount of the tax credits that may be claimed under |
this Section for qualified education expenses incurred by an |
employer on behalf of a qualifying apprentice shall be limited |
to $5,000,000 per calendar year. If applications for a greater |
amount are received, credits shall be allowed on a first-come |
first-served basis, based on the date on which each properly |
completed application for a certificate of eligibility is |
received by the Department. If more than one certificate is |
received on the same day, the credits will be awarded based on |
the time of submission for that particular day. |
(f) An employer may not sell or otherwise transfer a |
credit awarded under this Section to another person or |
taxpayer. |
(g) The employer shall provide the Department such |
information as the Department may require, including, but not |
limited to: (i) the name, age, and identification number of |
each qualifying apprentice employed by the taxpayer during the |
taxable year; (ii) the amount of qualified education expenses |
incurred with respect to each qualifying apprentice; and (iii) |
the name of the accredited training organization at which the |
qualifying apprentice is enrolled and the qualified education |
expenses are incurred. |
(h) On or before July 1 of each year, the Department shall |
report to the Governor and the General Assembly on the tax |
|
credit certificates awarded under this Section for the prior |
calendar year. The report must include: |
(1) the name of each employer awarded or allocated a |
credit; |
(2) the number of qualifying apprentices for whom the |
employer has incurred qualified education expenses; |
(3) the North American Industry Classification System |
(NAICS) code applicable to each employer awarded or |
allocated a credit; |
(4) the amount of the credit awarded or allocated to |
each employer; |
(5) the total number of employers awarded or allocated |
a credit; |
(6) the total number of qualifying apprentices for |
whom employers receiving credits under this Section |
incurred qualified education expenses; and |
(7) the average cost to the employer of all |
apprenticeships receiving credits under this Section. |
(Source: P.A. 103-396, eff. 1-1-24; 103-1059, eff. 12-20-24; |
104-6, eff. 6-16-25.) |
Section 1-60. The Counties Code is amended by changing |
Sections 3-5010.8, 5-41065, and 5-43043 as follows: |
(55 ILCS 5/3-5010.8) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026) |
|
Sec. 3-5010.8. Mechanics lien demand and referral pilot |
program. |
(a) Legislative findings. The General Assembly finds that |
expired mechanics liens on residential property, which cloud |
title to property, are a rapidly growing problem throughout |
the State. In order to address the increase in expired |
mechanics liens and, more specifically, those that have not |
been released by the lienholder, a recorder may establish a |
process to demand and refer mechanics liens that have been |
recorded but not litigated or released in accordance with the |
Mechanics Lien Act to an administrative law judge for |
resolution or demand that the lienholder commence suit or |
forfeit the lien. |
(b) Definitions. As used in this Section: |
"Demand to Commence Suit" means the written demand |
specified in Section 34 of the Mechanics Lien Act. |
"Mechanics lien" and "lien" are used interchangeably in |
this Section. |
"Notice of Expired Mechanics Lien" means the notice a |
recorder gives to a property owner under subsection (d) |
informing the property owner of an expired lien. |
"Notice of Referral" means the document referring a |
mechanics lien to a county's code hearing unit. |
"Recording" and "filing" are used interchangeably in this |
Section. |
"Referral" or "refer" means a recorder's referral of a |
|
mechanics lien to a county's code hearing unit to obtain a |
determination as to whether a recorded mechanics lien is |
valid. |
"Residential property" means real property improved with |
not less than one nor more than 4 residential dwelling units; a |
residential condominium unit, including, but not limited to, |
the common elements allocated to the exclusive use of the |
condominium unit that form an integral part of the condominium |
unit and any parking unit or units specified by the |
declaration to be allocated to a specific residential |
condominium unit; or a single tract of agriculture real estate |
consisting of 40 acres or less that is improved with a |
single-family residence. If a declaration of condominium |
ownership provides for individually owned and transferable |
parking units, "residential property" does not include the |
parking unit of a specified residential condominium unit |
unless the parking unit is included in the legal description |
of the property against which the mechanics lien is recorded. |
(c) Establishment of a mechanics lien demand and referral |
process. After a public hearing, a recorder in a county with a |
code hearing unit may adopt rules establishing a mechanics |
lien demand and referral process for residential property. A |
recorder shall provide public notice 90 days before the public |
hearing. The notice shall include a statement of the |
recorder's intent to create a mechanics lien demand and |
referral process and shall be published in a newspaper of |
|
general circulation in the county and, if feasible, be posted |
on the recorder's website and at the recorder's office or |
offices. |
(d) Notice of Expired Lien. If a recorder determines, |
after review by legal staff or counsel, that a mechanics lien |
recorded in the grantor's index or the grantee's index is an |
expired lien, the recorder shall serve a Notice of Expired |
Lien by certified mail to the last known address of the owner. |
The owner or legal representative of the owner of the |
residential property shall confirm in writing the owner's or |
legal representative's belief that the lien is not involved in |
pending litigation and, if there is no pending litigation, as |
verified and confirmed by county court records, the owner may |
request that the recorder proceed with a referral or serve a |
Demand to Commence Suit. |
For the purposes of this Section, a recorder shall |
determine if a lien is an expired lien. A lien is expired if a |
suit to enforce the lien has not been commenced or a |
counterclaim has not been filed by the lienholder within 2 |
years after the completion date of the contract as specified |
in the recorded mechanics lien. The 2-year period shall be |
increased to the extent that an automatic stay under Section |
362(a) of the United States Bankruptcy Code stays a suit or |
counterclaim to foreclose the lien. If a work completion date |
is not specified in the recorded lien, then the work |
completion date is the date of recording of the mechanics |
|
lien. |
(e) Demand to Commence Suit. Upon receipt of an owner's |
confirmation that the lien is not involved in pending |
litigation and a request for the recorder to serve a Demand to |
Commence Suit, the recorder shall serve a Demand to Commence |
Suit on the lienholder of the expired lien as provided in |
Section 34 of the Mechanics Lien Act. A recorder may request |
that the Secretary of State assist in providing registered |
agent information or obtain information from the Secretary of |
State's registered business database when the recorder seeks |
to serve a Demand to Commence suit on the lienholder. Upon |
request, the Secretary of State, or the Secretary of State's |
designee, shall provide the last known address or registered |
agent information for a lienholder who is incorporated or |
doing business in the State. The recorder must record a copy of |
the Demand to Commence suit in the grantor's index or the |
grantee's index identifying the mechanics lien and include the |
corresponding document number and the date of demand. The |
recorder may, at the recorder's discretion, notify the |
Secretary of State regarding a Demand to Commence suit |
determined to involve a company, corporation, or business |
registered with that office. |
When the lienholder commences a suit or files an answer |
within 30 days or the lienholder records a release of lien with |
the county recorder as required by subsection (a) of Section |
34 of the Mechanics Lien Act, then the demand and referral |
|
process is completed for the recorder for that property. If |
service under this Section is responded to consistent with |
Section 34 of the Mechanics Lien Act, the recorder may not |
proceed under subsection (f). If no response is received |
consistent with Section 34 of the Mechanics Lien Act, the |
recorder may proceed under subsection (f). |
(f) Referral. Upon receipt of an owner's confirmation that |
the lien is not involved in pending litigation and a request |
for the recorder to proceed with a referral, the recorder |
shall: (i) file the Notice of Referral with the county's code |
hearing unit; (ii) identify and notify the lienholder by |
telephone, if available, of the referral and send a copy of the |
Notice of Referral by certified mail to the lienholder using |
information included in the recorded mechanics lien or the |
last known address or registered agent received from the |
Secretary of State or obtained from the Secretary of State's |
registered business database; (iii) send a copy of the Notice |
of Referral by mail to the physical address of the property |
owner associated with the lien; and (iv) record a copy of the |
Notice of Referral in the grantor's index or the grantee's |
index identifying the mechanics lien and include the |
corresponding document number. The Notice of Referral shall |
clearly identify the person, persons, or entity believed to be |
the owner, assignee, successor, or beneficiary of the lien. |
The recorder may, at the recorder's discretion, notify the |
Secretary of State regarding a referral determined to involve |
|
a company, corporation, or business registered with that |
office. |
No earlier than 30 business days after the date the |
lienholder is required to respond to a Demand to Commence Suit |
under Section 34 of the Mechanics Lien Act, the code hearing |
unit shall schedule a hearing to occur at least 30 days after |
sending notice of the date of hearing. Notice of the hearing |
shall be provided by the county recorder, by and through the |
recorder's representative, to the filer, or the party |
represented by the filer, of the expired lien, the legal |
representative of the recorder of deeds who referred the case, |
and the last owner of record, as identified in the Notice of |
Referral. |
If the recorder shows by clear and convincing evidence |
that the lien in question is an expired lien, the |
administrative law judge shall rule the lien is forfeited |
under Section 34.5 of the Mechanics Lien Act and that the lien |
no longer affects the chain of title of the property in any |
way. The judgment shall be forwarded to all parties identified |
in this subsection. Upon receiving judgment of a forfeited |
lien, the recorder shall, within 5 business days, record a |
copy of the judgment in the grantor's index or the grantee's |
index. |
If the administrative law judge finds the lien is not |
expired, the recorder shall, no later than 5 business days |
after receiving notice of the decision of the administrative |
|
law judge, record a copy of the judgment in the grantor's index |
or the grantee's index. |
A decision by an administrative law judge is reviewable |
under the Administrative Review Law, and nothing in this |
Section precludes a property owner or lienholder from |
proceeding with a civil action to resolve questions concerning |
a mechanics lien. |
A lienholder or property owner may remove the action from |
the code hearing unit to the circuit court as provided in |
subsection (i). |
(g) Final administrative decision. The recorder's decision |
to refer a mechanics lien or serve a Demand to Commence Suit is |
a final administrative decision that is subject to review |
under the Administrative Review Law by the circuit court of |
the county where the real property is located. The standard of |
review by the circuit court shall be consistent with the |
Administrative Review Law. |
(h) Liability. A recorder and the recorder's employees or |
agents are not subject to personal liability by reason of any |
error or omission in the performance of any duty under this |
Section, except in the case of willful or wanton conduct. The |
recorder and the recorder's employees or agents are not liable |
for the decision to refer a lien or serve a Demand to Commence |
Suit, or failure to refer or serve a Demand to Commence Suit, |
of a lien under this Section. |
(i) Private actions; use of demand and referral process. |
|
Nothing in this Section precludes a private right of action by |
any party with an interest in the property affected by the |
mechanics lien or a decision by the code hearing unit. Nothing |
in this Section requires a person or entity who may have a |
mechanics lien recorded against the person's or entity's |
property to use the mechanics lien demand and referral process |
created by this Section. |
A lienholder or property owner may remove a matter in the |
referral process to the circuit court at any time prior to the |
final decision of the administrative law judge by delivering a |
certified notice of the suit filed in the circuit court to the |
administrative law judge. Upon receipt of the certified |
notice, the administrative law judge shall dismiss the matter |
without prejudice. If the matter is dismissed due to removal, |
then the demand and referral process is completed for the |
recorder for that property. If the circuit court dismisses the |
removed matter without deciding on whether the lien is expired |
and without prejudice, the recorder may reinstitute the demand |
and referral process under subsection (d). |
(j) Repeal. This Section is repealed on January 1, 2027 |
January 1, 2026. |
(Source: P.A. 102-671, eff. 11-30-21; 103-400, eff. 1-1-24; |
103-563, eff. 11-17-23.) |
(55 ILCS 5/5-41065) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026) |
|
Sec. 5-41065. Mechanics lien demand and referral |
adjudication. |
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Division, |
a county's code hearing unit must adjudicate an expired |
mechanics lien referred to the unit under Section 3-5010.8. |
(b) If a county does not have an administrative law judge |
in its code hearing unit who is familiar with the areas of law |
relating to mechanics liens, one may be appointed no later |
than 3 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act |
of the 100th General Assembly to adjudicate all referrals |
concerning mechanics liens under Section 3-5010.8. |
(c) If an administrative law judge familiar with the areas |
of law relating to mechanics liens has not been appointed as |
provided in subsection (b) when a mechanics lien is referred |
under Section 3-5010.8 to the code hearing unit, the case |
shall be removed to the proper circuit court with |
jurisdiction. |
(d) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2027 January 1, |
2026. |
(Source: P.A. 102-671, eff. 11-30-21; 103-563, eff. 11-17-23.) |
(55 ILCS 5/5-43043) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026) |
Sec. 5-43043. Mechanics lien demand and referral |
adjudication. |
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Division, |
|
a county's code hearing unit must adjudicate an expired |
mechanics lien referred to the unit under Section 3-5010.8. |
(b) If a county does not have an administrative law judge |
in its code hearing unit who is familiar with the areas of law |
relating to mechanics liens, one may be appointed no later |
than 3 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act |
of the 100th General Assembly to adjudicate all referrals |
concerning mechanics liens under Section 3-5010.8. |
(c) If an administrative law judge familiar with the areas |
of law relating to mechanics liens has not been appointed as |
provided in subsection (b) when a mechanics lien is referred |
under Section 3-5010.8 to the code hearing unit, the case |
shall be removed to the proper circuit court with |
jurisdiction. |
(d) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2027 January 1, |
2026. |
(Source: P.A. 102-671, eff. 11-30-21; 103-563, eff. 11-17-23.) |
Section 1-65. The Park Commissioners Land Sale Act is |
amended by changing Sections 20 and 25 as follows: |
(70 ILCS 1235/20) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026) |
Sec. 20. Elliot Golf Course. |
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the |
Rockford Park District may sell all or part of the property |
|
containing the former Elliot Golf Course or other property |
adjacent thereto if: |
(1) the board of commissioners of the Rockford Park |
District authorizes the sale by a vote of 80% or more of |
all commissioners in office at the time of the vote; and |
(2) the sale price equals or exceeds the average of 3 |
independent appraisals commissioned by the Rockford Park |
District. |
(b) The sale may be performed in a single transaction or |
multiple independent transactions and to one or more buyers. |
(c) The Public Works Department of the City of Rockford |
shall have the right to review any proposed development plan |
that is submitted to the Village of Cherry Valley for the |
properties described in this Section in order to confirm that |
the proposed development plan does not adversely impact |
drainage, water detention, or flooding on the property legally |
described in the perpetual flowage easement recorded as |
Document Number 9509260 in the Office of the Winnebago County |
Recorder on March 17, 1995. The Public Works Department of the |
City of Rockford shall complete its review of any proposed |
development plan under this subsection (c) within 45 days |
after its receipt of that plan from the Village of Cherry |
Valley. |
(d) This Section is repealed January 1, 2027 January 1, |
2026. |
(Source: P.A. 102-923, eff. 5-27-22; 103-1059, eff. 12-20-24.) |
|
(70 ILCS 1235/25) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026) |
Sec. 25. Sale of Joliet Park District land. |
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Joliet |
Park District may sell Splash Station if: |
(1) the board of commissioners of the Joliet Park |
District authorizes the sale by a four-fifths vote of the |
commissioners in office at the time of the vote; and |
(2) the sale price equals or exceeds the average of 3 |
independent appraisals commissioned by the Joliet Park |
District. |
(b) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2027 January 1, |
2026. |
(Source: P.A. 103-499, eff. 8-4-23; 104-10, eff. 6-16-25.) |
Article 5. |
Section 5-5. The Statute on Statutes is amended by |
changing Section 9 as follows: |
(5 ILCS 70/9) |
Sec. 9. Stated repeal date; presentation to Governor. If a |
bill that changes or eliminates the stated repeal date of an |
Act or an Article or Section of an Act is passed presented to |
the Governor by the General Assembly before or within 7 |
|
calendar days after the stated repeal date and, after the |
stated repeal date, either the Governor approves the bill, the |
General Assembly overrides the Governor's veto of the bill, or |
the bill becomes law because it is not returned by the Governor |
within 60 calendar days after it is presented to the Governor, |
then the Act, Article, or Section shall be deemed to remain in |
full force and effect from the stated repeal date through the |
date the Governor approves the bill, the General Assembly |
overrides the Governor's veto of the bill, or the bill becomes |
law because it is not returned by the Governor within 60 |
calendar days after it is presented to the Governor. |
Any action taken in reliance on the continuous effect of |
such an Act, Article, or Section by any person or entity is |
hereby validated. |
(Source: P.A. 102-687, eff. 12-17-21.) |
Article 10. |
Section 10-5. The Election Code is amended by adding |
Section 1-21.5 and by reenacting and changing Section 1-22 as |
follows: |
(10 ILCS 5/1-21.5 new) |
Sec. 1-21.5. Continuation and validation of Illinois |
Elections and Infrastructure Integrity Task Force. |
(a) The General Assembly finds and declares the following: |
|
(1) The Illinois Elections and Infrastructure |
Integrity Task Force was created by Public Act 102-1108, |
effective December 21, 2022, through the addition of |
Section 1-22 to this Code. |
(2) When it was added to this Code by Public Act |
102-1108, Section 1-22 contained a subsection (d), which |
provided for the dissolution of the Illinois Elections and |
Infrastructure Integrity Task Force and the repeal of |
Section 1-22 on June 1, 2025. |
(3) Senate Bill 2456 of the 104th General Assembly |
included a provision that amended Section 1-22 of the |
Election Code by extending the date for the dissolution of |
the Illinois Elections and Infrastructure Integrity Task |
Force and the repeal of Section 1-22 from June 1, 2025 to |
June 1, 2026, but Senate Bill 2456 did not become law until |
June 16, 2025. |
(4) The Statute on Statutes sets forth general rules |
on the repeal of statutes, but Section 1 of that Act also |
states that these rules will not be observed when the |
result would be "inconsistent with the manifest intent of |
the General Assembly or repugnant to the context of the |
statute". |
(5) The actions of the General Assembly in passing |
Senate Bill 2456 clearly manifested the intention of the |
General Assembly to extend the date for the dissolution of |
the Illinois Elections and Infrastructure Integrity Task |
|
Force and the repeal of Section 1-22. |
(6) Any construction of Section 1-22 that results in |
the dissolution of the Illinois Elections and |
Infrastructure Integrity Task Force and the repeal of |
Section 1-22 on June 1, 2025 would be inconsistent with |
the manifest intent of the General Assembly. |
(b) It is hereby declared to be the intent of the General |
Assembly that Section 1-22 should not be subject to repeal on |
June 1, 2025 and that the repeal date of the Illinois Elections |
and Infrastructure Integrity Task Force and Section 1-22 of |
this Code should be further extended to July 1, 2027. |
(c) Section 1-22 of this Code, therefore, shall not be |
subject to repeal on June 1, 2025 and, instead, shall be deemed |
to have been in continuous effect since its original effective |
date and shall remain in effect until it is otherwise lawfully |
repealed. |
(d) All actions taken in reliance on or pursuant to |
Section 1-22 by any officer or agency of State government or |
any other person or entity are validated. |
(e) To ensure the continuing effectiveness of the Illinois |
Elections and Infrastructure Integrity Task Force, Section |
1-22 is set forth in full and re-enacted by this amendatory Act |
of the 104th General Assembly. This re-enactment is intended |
as a continuation of the Illinois Elections and Infrastructure |
Integrity Task Force and Section 1-22. It is not intended to |
supersede any amendment to Section 1-22 that is enacted by the |
|
General Assembly. |
(f) In this amendatory Act of the 104th General Assembly, |
the base text of the reenacted Section is set forth as amended |
by Public Act 104-10. Striking and underscoring is used only |
to show additional changes being made to the base text. |
(g) This amendatory Act of the 104th General Assembly |
applies to all claims, civil actions, and proceedings pending |
on or filed on, before, or after the effective date of this |
amendatory Act. |
(10 ILCS 5/1-22) |
Sec. 1-22. The Illinois Elections and Infrastructure |
Integrity Task Force. |
(a) The Illinois Elections and Infrastructure Integrity |
Task Force is created. The Task Force shall consist of the |
following members: |
(1) 4 members appointed one each by the Speaker of the |
House of Representatives, the Minority Leader of the House |
of Representatives, the President of the Senate, and the |
Minority Leader of the Senate; |
(2) one member with subject matter expertise regarding |
cybersecurity, appointed by the Minority Leader of the |
House of Representatives; |
(3) one member with subject matter expertise regarding |
voting technology or election integrity, appointed by the |
Speaker of the House; |
|
(4) one member who is an individual with current |
experience in operational cybersecurity, preferably |
international operational cybersecurity, appointed by the |
President of the Senate; |
(5) one county clerk, appointed by the Minority Leader |
of the Senate; |
(6) the Chair of the Board of Election Commissioners |
for the City of Chicago or the Chair's designee; |
(7) the county clerk of Cook County; |
(8) one election administrator, appointed by the |
Governor; |
(9) the Executive Director of the State Board of |
Elections or the Executive Director's designee; |
(10) the Secretary of State or the Secretary's |
designee; |
(11) the Director of the Illinois Emergency Management |
Agency or the Director's designee; |
(12) the Secretary of Innovation and Technology or the |
Secretary's designee; and |
(13) the Attorney General or the Attorney General's |
designee. |
(b) The Task Force shall evaluate and make recommendations |
to prepare for and prevent foreign interference in elections |
in advance of the 2024 election and all future elections in the |
State and to prepare for and prevent potential cyberattacks on |
State infrastructure. In carrying out its duties, the Task |
|
Force shall prioritize the security of all Illinois residents |
and cooperation with other states and with law enforcement to |
protect United States national sovereignty. The Task Force |
shall submit a report containing its findings and |
recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly not |
later than January 1, 2024. The Task Force shall also submit a |
report evaluating the 2024 election to the Governor and the |
General Assembly not later than March 1, 2027 2025. |
(c) The State Board of Elections shall provide staff and |
administrative support to the Task Force. |
(d) The Task Force is dissolved, and this Section is |
repealed, on July 1, 2027 June 1, 2026. |
(Source: P.A. 102-1108, eff. 12-21-22; 104-10, eff. 6-16-25.) |
Article 15. |
Section 15-5. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by |
reenacting and changing Article 33G as follows: |
(720 ILCS 5/Art. 33G heading) |
ARTICLE 33G. ILLINOIS STREET GANG |
AND RACKETEER INFLUENCED AND CORRUPT ORGANIZATIONS LAW |
(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12.) |
(720 ILCS 5/33G-1) |
Sec. 33G-1. Short title. This Article may be cited as the |
|
Illinois Street Gang and Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt |
Organizations Law (or "RICO"). |
(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12.) |
(720 ILCS 5/33G-2) |
Sec. 33G-2. Legislative declaration. The substantial harm |
inflicted on the people and economy of this State by pervasive |
violent street gangs and other forms of enterprise |
criminality, is legitimately a matter of grave concern to the |
people of this State who have a basic right to be protected |
from that criminal activity and to be given adequate remedies |
to redress its harms. Whereas the current laws of this State |
provide inadequate remedies, procedures and punishments, the |
Illinois General Assembly hereby gives the supplemental |
remedies of the Illinois Street Gang and Racketeer Influenced |
and Corrupt Organizations Law full force and effect under law |
for the common good of this State and its people. |
(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12.) |
(720 ILCS 5/33G-3) |
Sec. 33G-3. Definitions. As used in this Article: |
(a) "Another state" means any State of the United States |
(other than the State of Illinois), or the District of |
Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or any territory |
or possession of the United States, or any political |
subdivision, or any department, agency, or instrumentality |
|
thereof. |
(b) "Enterprise" includes: |
(1) any partnership, corporation, association, |
business or charitable trust, or other legal entity; and |
(2) any group of individuals or other legal entities, |
or any combination thereof, associated in fact although |
not itself a legal entity. An association in fact must be |
held together by a common purpose of engaging in a course |
of conduct, and it may be associated together for purposes |
that are both legal and illegal. An association in fact |
must: |
(A) have an ongoing organization or structure, |
either formal or informal; |
(B) the various members of the group must function |
as a continuing unit, even if the group changes |
membership by gaining or losing members over time; and |
(C) have an ascertainable structure distinct from |
that inherent in the conduct of a pattern of predicate |
activity. |
As used in this Article, "enterprise" includes licit and |
illicit enterprises. |
(c) "Labor organization" includes any organization, labor |
union, craft union, or any voluntary unincorporated |
association designed to further the cause of the rights of |
union labor that is constituted for the purpose, in whole or in |
part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers |
|
concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or |
apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships, or of |
other mutual aid or protection in connection with employment, |
including apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships. |
(d) "Operation or management" means directing or carrying |
out the enterprise's affairs and is limited to any person who |
knowingly serves as a leader, organizer, operator, manager, |
director, supervisor, financier, advisor, recruiter, supplier, |
or enforcer of an enterprise in violation of this Article. |
(e) "Predicate activity" means any act that is a Class 2 |
felony or higher and constitutes a violation or violations of |
any of the following provisions of the laws of the State of |
Illinois (as amended or revised as of the date the activity |
occurred or, in the instance of a continuing offense, the date |
that charges under this Article are filed in a particular |
matter in the State of Illinois) or any act under the law of |
another jurisdiction for an offense that could be charged as a |
Class 2 felony or higher in this State: |
(1) under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal |
Code of 2012: 8-1.2 (solicitation of murder for hire), 9-1 |
(first degree murder), 9-3.3 (drug-induced homicide), 10-1 |
(kidnapping), 10-2 (aggravated kidnapping), 10-3.1 |
(aggravated unlawful restraint), 10-4 (forcible |
detention), 10-5(b)(10) (child abduction), 10-9 |
(trafficking in persons, involuntary servitude, and |
related offenses), 11-1.20 (criminal sexual assault), |
|
11-1.30 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 11-1.40 |
(predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), 11-1.60 |
(aggravated criminal sexual abuse), 11-6 (indecent |
solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of |
an adult), 11-14.3(a)(2)(A) and (a)(2)(B) (promoting |
prostitution), 11-14.4 (promoting commercial sexual |
exploitation of a child), 11-18.1 (patronizing a sexually |
exploited child; patronizing a sexually exploited child), |
12-3.05 (aggravated battery), 12-6.4 (criminal street gang |
recruitment), 12-6.5 (compelling organization membership |
of persons), 12-7.3 (stalking), 12-7.4 (aggravated |
stalking), 12-7.5 (cyberstalking), 12-11 or 19-6 (home |
invasion), 12-11.1 or 18-6 (vehicular invasion), 18-1 |
(robbery; aggravated robbery), 18-2 (armed robbery), 18-3 |
(vehicular hijacking), 18-4 (aggravated vehicular |
hijacking), 18-5 (aggravated robbery), 19-1 (burglary), |
19-3 (residential burglary), 20-1 (arson; residential |
arson; place of worship arson), 20-1.1 (aggravated arson), |
20-1.2 (residential arson), 20-1.3 (place of worship |
arson), 24-1.2 (aggravated discharge of a firearm), |
24-1.2-5 (aggravated discharge of a machine gun or |
silencer equipped firearm), 24-1.8 (unlawful possession of |
a firearm by a street gang member), 24-3.2 (unlawful |
discharge of firearm projectiles), 24-3.9 (aggravated |
possession of a stolen firearm), 24-3A (gunrunning), 26-5 |
or 48-1 (dog-fighting), 29D-14.9 (terrorism), 29D-15 |
|
(soliciting support for terrorism), 29D-15.1 (causing a |
catastrophe), 29D-15.2 (possession of a deadly substance), |
29D-20 (making a terrorist threat), 29D-25 (falsely making |
a terrorist threat), 29D-29.9 (material support for |
terrorism), 29D-35 (hindering prosecution of terrorism), |
31A-1.2 (unauthorized contraband in a penal institution), |
or 33A-3 (armed violence); |
(2) under the Cannabis Control Act: Sections 5 |
(manufacture or delivery of cannabis), 5.1 (cannabis |
trafficking), or 8 (production or possession of cannabis |
plants), provided the offense either involves more than |
500 grams of any substance containing cannabis or involves |
more than 50 cannabis sativa plants; |
(3) under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act: |
Sections 401 (manufacture or delivery of a controlled |
substance), 401.1 (controlled substance trafficking), 405 |
(calculated criminal drug conspiracy), or 405.2 (street |
gang criminal drug conspiracy); or |
(4) under the Methamphetamine Control and Community |
Protection Act: Sections 15 (methamphetamine |
manufacturing), or 55 (methamphetamine delivery). |
(f) "Pattern of predicate activity" means: |
(1) at least 3 occurrences of predicate activity that |
are in some way related to each other and that have |
continuity between them, and that are separate acts. Acts |
are related to each other if they are not isolated events, |
|
including if they have similar purposes, or results, or |
participants, or victims, or are committed a similar way, |
or have other similar distinguishing characteristics, or |
are part of the affairs of the same enterprise. There is |
continuity between acts if they are ongoing over a |
substantial period, or if they are part of the regular way |
some entity does business or conducts its affairs; and |
(2) which occurs after the effective date of this |
Article, and the last of which falls within 3 years |
(excluding any period of imprisonment) after the first |
occurrence of predicate activity. |
(g) "Unlawful death" includes the following offenses: |
under the Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: Sections |
9-1 (first degree murder) or 9-2 (second degree murder). |
(Source: P.A. 103-1071, eff. 7-1-25.) |
(720 ILCS 5/33G-4) |
Sec. 33G-4. Prohibited activities. |
(a) It is unlawful for any person, who intentionally |
participates in the operation or management of an enterprise, |
directly or indirectly, to: |
(1) knowingly do so, directly or indirectly, through a |
pattern of predicate activity; |
(2) knowingly cause another to violate this Article; |
or |
(3) knowingly conspire to violate this Article. |
|
Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in any |
prosecution for a conspiracy to violate this Article, no |
person may be convicted of that conspiracy unless an overt act |
in furtherance of the agreement is alleged and proved to have |
been committed by him, her, or by a coconspirator, but the |
commission of the overt act need not itself constitute |
predicate activity underlying the specific violation of this |
Article. |
(b) It is unlawful for any person knowingly to acquire or |
maintain, directly or indirectly, through a pattern of |
predicate activity any interest in, or control of, to any |
degree, any enterprise, real property, or personal property of |
any character, including money. |
(c) Nothing in this Article shall be construed as to make |
unlawful any activity which is arguably protected or |
prohibited by the National Labor Relations Act, the Illinois |
Educational Labor Relations Act, the Illinois Public Labor |
Relations Act, or the Railway Labor Act. |
(d) The following organizations, and any officer or agent |
of those organizations acting in his or her official capacity |
as an officer or agent, may not be sued in civil actions under |
this Article: |
(1) a labor organization; or |
(2) any business defined in Division D, E, F, G, H, or |
I of the Standard Industrial Classification as established |
by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. |
|
Department of Labor. |
(e) Any person prosecuted under this Article may be |
convicted and sentenced either: |
(1) for the offense of conspiring to violate this |
Article, and for any other particular offense or offenses |
that may be one of the objects of a conspiracy to violate |
this Article; or |
(2) for the offense of violating this Article, and for |
any other particular offense or offenses that may |
constitute predicate activity underlying a violation of |
this Article. |
(f) The State's Attorney, or a person designated by law to |
act for him or her and to perform his or her duties during his |
or her absence or disability, may authorize a criminal |
prosecution under this Article. Prior to any State's Attorney |
authorizing a criminal prosecution under this Article, the |
State's Attorney shall adopt rules and procedures governing |
the investigation and prosecution of any offense enumerated in |
this Article. These rules and procedures shall set forth |
guidelines which require that any potential prosecution under |
this Article be subject to an internal approval process in |
which it is determined, in a written prosecution memorandum |
prepared by the State's Attorney's Office, that (1) a |
prosecution under this Article is necessary to ensure that the |
indictment adequately reflects the nature and extent of the |
criminal conduct involved in a way that prosecution only on |
|
the underlying predicate activity would not, and (2) a |
prosecution under this Article would provide the basis for an |
appropriate sentence under all the circumstances of the case |
in a way that a prosecution only on the underlying predicate |
activity would not. No State's Attorney, or person designated |
by law to act for him or her and to perform his or her duties |
during his or her absence or disability, may authorize a |
criminal prosecution under this Article prior to reviewing the |
prepared written prosecution memorandum. However, any internal |
memorandum shall remain protected from disclosure under the |
attorney-client privilege, and this provision does not create |
any enforceable right on behalf of any defendant or party, nor |
does it subject the exercise of prosecutorial discretion to |
judicial review. |
(g) A labor organization and any officer or agent of that |
organization acting in his or her capacity as an officer or |
agent of the labor organization are exempt from prosecution |
under this Article. |
(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.) |
(720 ILCS 5/33G-5) |
Sec. 33G-5. Penalties. Under this Article, notwithstanding |
any other provision of law: |
(a) Any violation of subsection (a) of Section 33G-4 of |
this Article shall be sentenced as a Class X felony with a term |
of imprisonment of not less than 7 years and not more than 30 |
|
years, or the sentence applicable to the underlying predicate |
activity, whichever is higher, and the sentence imposed shall |
also include restitution, and/or a criminal fine, jointly and |
severally, up to $250,000 or twice the gross amount of any |
intended proceeds of the violation, if any, whichever is |
higher. |
(b) Any violation of subsection (b) of Section 33G-4 of |
this Article shall be sentenced as a Class X felony, and the |
sentence imposed shall also include restitution, and/or a |
criminal fine, jointly and severally, up to $250,000 or twice |
the gross amount of any intended proceeds of the violation, if |
any, whichever is higher. |
(c) Wherever the unlawful death of any person or persons |
results as a necessary or natural consequence of any violation |
of this Article, the sentence imposed on the defendant shall |
include an enhanced term of imprisonment of at least 25 years |
up to natural life, in addition to any other penalty imposed by |
the court, provided: |
(1) the death or deaths were reasonably foreseeable to |
the defendant to be sentenced; and |
(2) the death or deaths occurred when the defendant |
was otherwise engaged in the violation of this Article as |
a whole. |
(d) A sentence of probation, periodic imprisonment, |
conditional discharge, impact incarceration or county impact |
incarceration, court supervision, withheld adjudication, or |
|
any pretrial diversionary sentence or suspended sentence, is |
not authorized for a violation of this Article. |
(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.) |
(720 ILCS 5/33G-6) |
Sec. 33G-6. Remedial proceedings, procedures, and |
forfeiture. |
(a) Under this Article, the circuit court shall have |
jurisdiction to prevent and restrain violations of this |
Article by issuing appropriate orders, including: |
(1) ordering any person to disgorge illicit proceeds |
obtained by a violation of this Article or divest himself |
or herself of any interest, direct or indirect, in any |
enterprise or real or personal property of any character, |
including money, obtained, directly or indirectly, by a |
violation of this Article; |
(2) imposing reasonable restrictions on the future |
activities or investments of any person or enterprise, |
including prohibiting any person or enterprise from |
engaging in the same type of endeavor as the person or |
enterprise engaged in, that violated this Article; or |
(3) ordering dissolution or reorganization of any |
enterprise, making due provision for the rights of |
innocent persons. |
(b) Any violation of this Article is subject to the |
remedies, procedures, and forfeiture as set forth in Article |
|
29B of this Code. |
(c) Property seized or forfeited under this Article is |
subject to reporting under the Seizure and Forfeiture |
Reporting Act. |
(Source: P.A. 100-512, eff. 7-1-18; 100-699, eff. 8-3-18; |
101-81, eff. 7-12-19.) |
(720 ILCS 5/33G-7) |
Sec. 33G-7. Construction. In interpreting the provisions |
of this Article, the court shall construe them in light of the |
applicable model jury instructions set forth in the Federal |
Criminal Jury Instructions for the Seventh Circuit (1999) for |
Title IX of Public Law 91-452, 84 Stat. 922 (as amended in |
Title 18, United States Code, Sections 1961 through 1968), |
except to the extent that they are inconsistent with the plain |
language of this Article. |
(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.) |
(720 ILCS 5/33G-8) |
Sec. 33G-8. Limitations. Under this Article, |
notwithstanding any other provision of law, but otherwise |
subject to the periods of exclusion from limitation as |
provided in Section 3-7 of this Code, the following |
limitations apply: |
(a) Any action, proceeding, or prosecution brought under |
this Article must commence within 5 years of one of the |
|
following dates, whichever is latest: |
(1) the date of the commission of the last occurrence |
of predicate activity in a pattern of that activity, in |
the form of an act underlying the alleged violation of |
this Article; or |
(2) in the case of an action, proceeding, or |
prosecution, based upon a conspiracy to violate this |
Article, the date that the last objective of the alleged |
conspiracy was accomplished, defeated or abandoned |
(whichever is later); or |
(3) the date any minor victim of the violation attains |
the age of 18 years or the date any victim of the violation |
subject to a legal disability thereafter gains legal |
capacity. |
(b) Any action, proceeding, or prosecution brought under |
this Article may be commenced at any time against all |
defendants if the conduct of any defendant, or any part of the |
overall violation, resulted in the unlawful death of any |
person or persons. |
(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12.) |
(720 ILCS 5/33G-9) |
Sec. 33G-9. Repeal. This Article is repealed on July June |
1, 2027. |
(Source: P.A. 102-918, eff. 5-27-22; 103-4, eff. 5-31-23; |
104-10, eff. 6-16-25.) |
|
(720 ILCS 5/33G-10 new) |
Sec. 33G-10. Continuation and validation of Illinois |
Street Gang and Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations |
Law. |
(a) The General Assembly finds and declares the following: |
(1) When Article 33G was added to this Code by Public |
Act 97-686, it contained a Section 33G-9, which specified |
that Article 33G was repealed 5 years after June 11, 2012, |
the effective date of Public Act 97-686. |
(2) As a result of several subsequent enactments, |
including Public Act 103-4, the repeal date of Article 33G |
was extended to June 1, 2025. |
(3) Senate Bill 2456 of the 104th General Assembly |
included a provision that further extended the repeal date |
of Article 33G from June 1, 2025 to June 1, 2027, but |
Senate Bill 2456 did not become law until June 16, 2025. |
(4) The Statute on Statutes sets forth general rules |
on the repeal of statutes, but Section 1 of that Act also |
states that these rules will not be observed when the |
result would be "inconsistent with the manifest intent of |
the General Assembly or repugnant to the context of the |
statute". |
(5) The actions of the General Assembly in passing |
Senate Bill 2456 clearly manifested the intention of the |
General Assembly to extend the date for the repeal of |
|
Article 33G of this Code. |
(6) Any construction of Section 33G-9 that results in |
the repeal of Article 33G of this Code on June 1, 2025 |
would be inconsistent with the manifest intent of the |
General Assembly. |
(b) It is hereby declared to be the intent of the General |
Assembly that Article 33G of this Code should not be subject to |
repeal on June 1, 2025 and that the repeal date of Article 33G |
of this Code should be further extended to July 1, 2027. |
(c) Article 33G, therefore, shall not be subject to repeal |
on June 1, 2025 and, instead, shall be deemed to have been in |
continuous effect since its original effective date and shall |
remain in effect until it is otherwise lawfully repealed. |
(d) All actions taken in reliance on or pursuant to |
Article 33G by any officer or agency of State government or any |
other person or entity are validated. |
(e) To ensure the continuing effectiveness of Article 33G |
of this Code, Article 33G is set forth in full and re-enacted |
by this amendatory Act of the 104th General Assembly. This |
re-enactment is intended as a continuation of Article 33G. It |
is not intended to supersede any amendment to Article 33G that |
is enacted by the General Assembly. |
(f) In this amendatory Act of the 104th General Assembly, |
the base text of the reenacted Section is set forth as amended |
by Public Act 104-10. Striking and underscoring is used only |
to show additional changes being made to the base text. |
|
(g) This amendatory Act of the 104th General Assembly |
applies to all claims, civil actions, and proceedings pending |
on or filed on, before, or after the effective date of this |
amendatory Act. |
Article 20. |
Section 20-5. The Eminent Domain Act is amended by adding |
Section 25-5-104.5 and by reenacting and changing Section |
25-5-105 as follows: |
(735 ILCS 30/25-5-104.5 new) |
Sec. 25-5-104.5. Continuation and validation of quick-take |
powers; Menard County; Athens Blacktop. |
(a) The General Assembly finds and declares the following: |
(1) When Section 25-5-105 was added to this Act by |
Public Act 103-3, it contained a provision that called for |
Section 25-5-105 to be repealed May 31, 2023, which was 2 |
years after the effective date of Public Act 103-3. |
(2) As a result of the enactment of Public Act |
103-605, the repeal date of Section 25-5-105 was extended |
to May 31, 2025. |
(3) Senate Bill 2456 of the 104th General Assembly |
included a provision that further extended the repeal date |
of Section 25-5-105 from May 31, 2025 to May 31, 2026, but |
Senate Bill 2456 did not become law until June 16, 2025. |
|
(4) The Statute on Statutes sets forth general rules |
on the repeal of statutes, but Section 1 of that Act also |
states that these rules will not be observed when the |
result would be "inconsistent with the manifest intent of |
the General Assembly or repugnant to the context of the |
statute". |
(5) The actions of the General Assembly in passing |
Senate Bill 2456 clearly manifested the intention of the |
General Assembly to extend the date for the repeal of |
Section 25-5-105. |
(6) Any construction of Section 25-5-105 that results |
in the repeal of Section 25-5-105 on May 31, 2025 would be |
inconsistent with the manifest intent of the General |
Assembly. |
(b) It is hereby declared to be the intent of the General |
Assembly that Section 25-5-105 should not be subject to repeal |
on May 31, 2025 and that the repeal date of Section 25-5-105 |
should be further extended to July 1, 2027. |
(c) Section 25-5-105 of this Act, therefore, shall not be |
subject to repeal on May 31, 2025 and, instead, shall be deemed |
to have been in continuous effect since its original effective |
date and shall remain in effect until it is otherwise lawfully |
repealed. |
(d) All actions taken in reliance on or pursuant to |
Section 25-5-105 by any officer or agency of State government |
or any other person or entity are validated. |
|
(e) To ensure the continuing effectiveness of Section |
25-5-105, Section 25-5-105 is set forth in full and re-enacted |
by this amendatory Act of the 104th General Assembly. This |
re-enactment is intended as a continuation of Section |
25-5-105. It is not intended to supersede any amendment to |
Section 25-5-105 that is enacted by the General Assembly. |
(f) In this amendatory Act of the 104th General Assembly, |
the base text of the reenacted Section is set forth as amended |
by Public Act 104-10. Striking and underscoring is used only |
to show additional changes being made to the base text. |
(g) This amendatory Act of the 104th General Assembly |
applies to all claims, civil actions, and proceedings pending |
on or filed on, before, or after the effective date of this |
amendatory Act. |
(735 ILCS 30/25-5-105) |
Sec. 25-5-105. Quick-take; Menard County; Athens Blacktop. |
(a) Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used |
for a period of one year after May 31, 2025 (2 years after the |
effective date of Public Act 103-3) by Menard County for the |
acquisition of the following described property for the |
purpose of reconstructing the Athens Blacktop corridor. |
Route: FAS 574/Athens Blacktop Road |
County: Menard |
Parcel No.: D-18 |
|
P.I.N. No.: 12-28-400-006 |
Section: 09-00056-05-EG |
Station: RT 181+94.77 |
Station: RT 188+48.97 |
A part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 28, |
Township 18 North, Range 6 West of the Third Principal |
Meridian, described as follows: |
Commencing at the Northeast corner of the Southeast |
Quarter of said Section 28; thence South 89 degrees 42 |
minutes 06 seconds West along the north line of the |
Southeast Quarter of said Section 28, a distance of 669.81 |
feet to the northeast parcel corner and the point of |
beginning; thence South 02 degrees 24 minutes 13 seconds |
East along the east parcel line, 80.48 feet; thence South |
72 degrees 55 minutes 03 seconds West, 103.39 feet; thence |
South 89 degrees 43 minutes 40 seconds West, 150.00 feet; |
thence North 86 degrees 08 minutes 49 seconds West, 405.10 |
feet to the west parcel line; thence North 01 degree 06 |
minutes 28 seconds West along said line, 80.89 feet to the |
north line of the Southeast Quarter of said Section 28; |
thence North 89 degrees 42 minutes 06 seconds East along |
said line, 651.20 feet to the point of beginning, |
containing 0.860 acres, more or less of new right of way |
and 0.621 acres, more or less of existing right of way. |
Route: FAS 574/Athens Blacktop Road |
|
County: Menard |
Parcel No.: D-19 |
P.I.N. No.: 12-28-400-007 |
Section: 09-00056-05-EG |
Station: RT 188+46.59 |
Station: RT 191+17.37 |
A part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 28, |
Township 18 North, Range 6 West of the Third Principal |
Meridian, described as follows: |
Commencing at the Northeast corner of the Southeast |
Quarter of said Section 28; thence South 89 degrees 42 |
minutes 06 seconds West along the north line of the |
Southeast Quarter of said Section 28, a distance of 399.89 |
feet to the northeast parcel corner and the point of |
beginning; thence South 01 degree 10 minutes 54 seconds |
East along the east parcel line, 92.67 feet; thence South |
80 degrees 35 minutes 32 seconds West, 17.59 feet; thence |
South 89 degrees 43 minutes 40 seconds West, 75.00 feet; |
thence North 00 degrees 16 minutes 20 seconds West, 45.45 |
feet to the existing southerly right of way line of Athens |
Blacktop Road (FAS 574); thence South 89 degrees 42 |
minutes 25 seconds West along said line, 75.00 feet; |
thence South 72 degrees 55 minutes 03 seconds West, 105.54 |
feet to the west parcel line; thence North 02 degrees 24 |
minutes 13 seconds West along said line, 80.48 feet to the |
north line of the Southeast Quarter of said Section 28; |
|
thence North 89 degrees 42 minutes 06 seconds East along |
said line, 269.92 feet to the point of beginning, |
containing 0.137 acres, more or less of new right of way |
and 0.303 acres, more or less of existing right of way. |
(b) This Section is repealed July 1, 2027 May 31, 2026 (3 |
years after the effective date of Public Act 103-3). |
(Source: P.A. 103-3, eff. 5-31-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; |
104-10, eff. 6-16-25) |
Article 25. |
Section 25-5. The Election Code is amended by changing |
Section 10-6 as follows: |
(10 ILCS 5/10-6) (from Ch. 46, par. 10-6) |
Sec. 10-6. Time and manner of filing. Except as otherwise |
provided in this Code, certificates of nomination and |
nomination papers for the nomination of candidates for offices |
to be filled by electors of the entire State, or any district |
not entirely within a county, or for congressional, state |
legislative or judicial offices, shall be presented to the |
principal office of the State Board of Elections not more than |
169 nor less than 162 days previous to the day of election for |
which the candidates are nominated. The State Board of |
Elections shall endorse the certificates of nomination or |
nomination papers, as the case may be, and the date and hour of |
|
presentment to it. Except as otherwise provided in this Code, |
all other certificates for the nomination of candidates shall |
be filed with the county clerk of the respective counties not |
more than 169 but at least 162 days previous to the day of such |
election. Certificates of nomination and nomination papers for |
the nomination of candidates for school district offices to be |
filled at consolidated elections shall be filed with the |
county clerk or county board of election commissioners of the |
county in which the principal office of the school district is |
located not more than 141 nor less than 134 days before the |
consolidated election. Except as otherwise provided in this |
Code, certificates of nomination and nomination papers for the |
nomination of candidates for the other offices of political |
subdivisions to be filled at regular elections other than the |
general election shall be filed with the local election |
official of such subdivision: |
(1) (blank); |
(2) not more than 141 nor less than 134 days prior to |
the consolidated election; or |
(3) not more than 141 nor less than 134 days prior to |
the general primary in the case of municipal offices to be |
filled at the general primary election; or |
(4) not more than 127 nor less than 120 days before the |
consolidated primary in the case of municipal offices to |
be elected on a nonpartisan basis pursuant to law |
(including, without limitation, those municipal offices |
|
subject to Articles 4 and 5 of the Municipal Code); or |
(5) not more than 141 nor less than 134 days before the |
municipal primary in even numbered years for such |
nonpartisan municipal offices where annual elections are |
provided; or |
(6) in the case of petitions for the office of |
multi-township assessor, such petitions shall be filed |
with the election authority not more than 141 113 nor less |
than 134 days before the consolidated election. |
However, where a political subdivision's boundaries are |
co-extensive with or are entirely within the jurisdiction of a |
municipal board of election commissioners, the certificates of |
nomination and nomination papers for candidates for such |
political subdivision offices shall be filed in the office of |
such Board. |
(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; 103-600, eff. 7-1-24.) |
Section 25-10. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by |
changing Section 3.1-10-50 as follows: |
(65 ILCS 5/3.1-10-50) |
Sec. 3.1-10-50. Events upon which an elective office |
becomes vacant in municipality with population under 500,000. |
(a) Vacancy by resignation. A resignation is not effective |
unless it is in writing, signed by the person holding the |
elective office, and notarized. |
|
(1) Unconditional resignation. An unconditional |
resignation by a person holding the elective office may |
specify a future date, not later than 60 days after the |
date the resignation is received by the officer authorized |
to fill the vacancy, at which time it becomes operative, |
but the resignation may not be withdrawn after it is |
received by the officer authorized to fill the vacancy. |
The effective date of a resignation that does not specify |
a future date at which it becomes operative is the date the |
resignation is received by the officer authorized to fill |
the vacancy. The effective date of a resignation that has |
a specified future effective date is that specified future |
date or the date the resignation is received by the |
officer authorized to fill the vacancy, whichever date |
occurs later. |
(2) Conditional resignation. A resignation that does |
not become effective unless a specified event occurs can |
be withdrawn at any time prior to the occurrence of the |
specified event, but if not withdrawn, the effective date |
of the resignation is the date of the occurrence of the |
specified event or the date the resignation is received by |
the officer authorized to fill the vacancy, whichever date |
occurs later. |
(3) Vacancy upon the effective date. For the purpose |
of determining the time period that would require an |
election to fill the vacancy by resignation or the |
|
commencement of the 60-day time period referred to in |
subsection (e), the resignation of an elected officer is |
deemed to have created a vacancy as of the effective date |
of the resignation. |
(4) Duty of the clerk. If a resignation is delivered |
to the clerk of the municipality, the clerk shall forward |
a certified copy of the written resignation to the |
official who is authorized to fill the vacancy within 7 |
business days after receipt of the resignation. |
(b) Vacancy by death or disability. A vacancy occurs in an |
office by reason of the death of the incumbent. The date of the |
death may be established by the date shown on the death |
certificate. A vacancy occurs in an office by permanent |
physical or mental disability rendering the person incapable |
of performing the duties of the office. The corporate |
authorities have the authority to make the determination |
whether an officer is incapable of performing the duties of |
the office because of a permanent physical or mental |
disability. A finding of mental disability shall not be made |
prior to the appointment by a court of a guardian ad litem for |
the officer or until a duly licensed doctor certifies, in |
writing, that the officer is mentally impaired to the extent |
that the officer is unable to effectively perform the duties |
of the office. If the corporate authorities find that an |
officer is incapable of performing the duties of the office |
due to permanent physical or mental disability, that person is |
|
removed from the office and the vacancy of the office occurs on |
the date of the determination. |
(c) Vacancy by other causes. |
(1) Abandonment and other causes. A vacancy occurs in |
an office by reason of abandonment of office; removal from |
office; or failure to qualify; or more than temporary |
removal of residence from the municipality; or in the case |
of an alderperson of a ward or councilman or trustee of a |
district, more than temporary removal of residence from |
the ward or district, as the case may be. The corporate |
authorities have the authority to determine whether a |
vacancy under this subsection has occurred. If the |
corporate authorities determine that a vacancy exists, the |
office is deemed vacant as of the date of that |
determination for all purposes including the calculation |
under subsections (e), (f), and (g). |
(2) Guilty of a criminal offense. An admission of |
guilt of a criminal offense that upon conviction would |
disqualify the municipal officer from holding the office, |
in the form of a written agreement with State or federal |
prosecutors to plead guilty to a felony, bribery, perjury, |
or other infamous crime under State or federal law, |
constitutes a resignation from that office, effective on |
the date the plea agreement is made. For purposes of this |
Section, a conviction for an offense that disqualifies a |
municipal officer from holding that office occurs on the |
|
date of the return of a guilty verdict or, in the case of a |
trial by the court, on the entry of a finding of guilt. |
(3) Election declared void. A vacancy occurs on the |
date of the decision of a competent tribunal declaring the |
election of the officer void. |
(4) Owing a debt to the municipality. A vacancy occurs |
if a municipal official fails to pay a debt to a |
municipality in which the official has been elected or |
appointed to an elected position subject to the following: |
(A) Before a vacancy may occur under this |
paragraph (4), the municipal clerk shall deliver, by |
personal service, a written notice to the municipal |
official that (i) the municipal official is in arrears |
of a debt to the municipality, (ii) that municipal |
official must either pay or contest the debt within 30 |
days after receipt of the notice or the municipal |
official will be disqualified and his or her office |
vacated, and (iii) if the municipal official chooses |
to contest the debt, the municipal official must |
provide written notice to the municipal clerk of the |
contesting of the debt. A copy of the notice, and the |
notice to contest, shall also be mailed by the |
municipal clerk to the appointed municipal attorney by |
certified mail. If the municipal clerk is the |
municipal official indebted to the municipality, the |
mayor or president of the municipality shall assume |
|
the duties of the municipal clerk required under this |
paragraph (4). |
(B) In the event that the municipal official |
chooses to contest the debt, a hearing shall be held |
within 30 days of the municipal clerk's receipt of the |
written notice of contest from the municipal official. |
An appointed municipal hearing officer shall preside |
over the hearing, and shall hear testimony and accept |
evidence relevant to the existence of the debt owed by |
the municipal officer to the municipality. |
(C) Upon the conclusion of the hearing, the |
hearing officer shall make a determination on the |
basis of the evidence presented as to whether or not |
the municipal official is in arrears of a debt to the |
municipality. The determination shall be in writing |
and shall be designated as findings, decision, and |
order. The findings, decision, and order shall |
include: (i) the hearing officer's findings of fact; |
(ii) a decision of whether or not the municipal |
official is in arrears of a debt to the municipality |
based upon the findings of fact; and (iii) an order |
that either directs the municipal official to pay the |
debt within 30 days or be disqualified and his or her |
office vacated or dismisses the matter if a debt owed |
to the municipality is not proved. A copy of the |
hearing officer's written determination shall be |
|
served upon the municipal official in open proceedings |
before the hearing officer. If the municipal official |
does not appear for receipt of the written |
determination, the written determination shall be |
deemed to have been served on the municipal official |
on the date when a copy of the written determination is |
personally served on the municipal official or on the |
date when a copy of the written determination is |
deposited in the United States mail, postage prepaid, |
addressed to the municipal official at the address on |
record with the municipality. |
(D) A municipal official aggrieved by the |
determination of a hearing officer may secure judicial |
review of such determination in the circuit court of |
the county in which the hearing was held. The |
municipal official seeking judicial review must file a |
petition with the clerk of the court and must serve a |
copy of the petition upon the municipality by |
registered or certified mail within 5 days after |
service of the determination of the hearing officer. |
The petition shall contain a brief statement of the |
reasons why the determination of the hearing officer |
should be reversed. The municipal official shall file |
proof of service with the clerk of the court. No answer |
to the petition need be filed, but the municipality |
shall cause the record of proceedings before the |
|
hearing officer to be filed with the clerk of the court |
on or before the date of the hearing on the petition or |
as ordered by the court. The court shall set the matter |
for hearing to be held within 30 days after the filing |
of the petition and shall make its decision promptly |
after such hearing. |
(E) If a municipal official chooses to pay the |
debt, or is ordered to pay the debt after the hearing, |
the municipal official must present proof of payment |
to the municipal clerk that the debt was paid in full, |
and, if applicable, within the required time period as |
ordered by a hearing officer or circuit court judge. |
(F) A municipal official will be disqualified and |
his or her office vacated pursuant to this paragraph |
(4) on the later of the following times if the |
municipal official: (i) fails to pay or contest the |
debt within 30 days of the municipal official's |
receipt of the notice of the debt; (ii) fails to pay |
the debt within 30 days after being served with a |
written determination under subparagraph (C) ordering |
the municipal official to pay the debt; or (iii) fails |
to pay the debt within 30 days after being served with |
a decision pursuant to subparagraph (D) upholding a |
hearing officer's determination that the municipal |
officer has failed to pay a debt owed to a |
municipality. |
|
(G) For purposes of this paragraph, a "debt" shall |
mean an arrearage in a definitely ascertainable and |
quantifiable amount after service of written notice |
thereof, in the payment of any indebtedness due to the |
municipality, which has been adjudicated before a |
tribunal with jurisdiction over the matter. A |
municipal official is considered in arrears of a debt |
to a municipality if a debt is more than 30 days |
overdue from the date the debt was due. |
(d) Election of an acting mayor or acting president. The |
election of an acting mayor or acting president pursuant to |
subsection (f) or (g) does not create a vacancy in the original |
office of the person on the city council or as a trustee, as |
the case may be, unless the person resigns from the original |
office following election as acting mayor or acting president. |
If the person resigns from the original office following |
election as acting mayor or acting president, then the |
original office must be filled pursuant to the terms of this |
Section and the acting mayor or acting president shall |
exercise the powers of the mayor or president and shall vote |
and have veto power in the manner provided by law for a mayor |
or president. If the person does not resign from the original |
office following election as acting mayor or acting president, |
then the acting mayor or acting president shall exercise the |
powers of the mayor or president but shall be entitled to vote |
only in the manner provided for as the holder of the original |
|
office and shall not have the power to veto. If the person does |
not resign from the original office following election as |
acting mayor or acting president, and if that person's |
original term of office has not expired when a mayor or |
president is elected and has qualified for office, the acting |
mayor or acting-president shall return to the original office |
for the remainder of the term thereof. |
(e) Appointment to fill alderperson or trustee vacancy. An |
appointment by the mayor or president or acting mayor or |
acting president, as the case may be, of a qualified person as |
described in Section 3.1-10-5 of this Code to fill a vacancy in |
the office of alderperson or trustee must be made within 60 |
days after the vacancy occurs. Once the appointment of the |
qualified person has been forwarded to the corporate |
authorities, the corporate authorities shall act upon the |
appointment within 30 days. If the appointment fails to |
receive the advice and consent of the corporate authorities |
within 30 days, the mayor or president or acting mayor or |
acting president shall appoint and forward to the corporate |
authorities a second qualified person as described in Section |
3.1-10-5. Once the appointment of the second qualified person |
has been forwarded to the corporate authorities, the corporate |
authorities shall act upon the appointment within 30 days. If |
the appointment of the second qualified person also fails to |
receive the advice and consent of the corporate authorities, |
then the mayor or president or acting mayor or acting |
|
president, without the advice and consent of the corporate |
authorities, may make a temporary appointment from those |
persons who were appointed but whose appointments failed to |
receive the advice and consent of the corporate authorities. |
The person receiving the temporary appointment shall serve |
until an appointment has received the advice and consent and |
the appointee has qualified or until a person has been elected |
and has qualified, whichever first occurs. |
(f) Election to fill vacancies in municipal offices with |
4-year terms. If a vacancy occurs in an elective municipal |
office with a 4-year term and there remains an unexpired |
portion of the term of at least 28 months, and the vacancy |
occurs before the period to file petitions for at least 130 |
days before the general municipal election next scheduled |
under the general election law, then the vacancy shall be |
filled for the remainder of the term at that general municipal |
election. Whenever an election is held for this purpose, the |
municipal clerk shall certify the office to be filled and the |
candidates for the office to the proper election authorities |
as provided in the general election law. If a vacancy occurs |
with less than 28 months remaining in the unexpired portion of |
the term or after the period to file petitions for less than |
130 days before the general municipal election, then: |
(1) Mayor or president. If the vacancy is in the |
office of mayor or president, the vacancy must be filled |
by the corporate authorities electing one of their members |
|
as acting mayor or acting president. Except as set forth |
in subsection (d), the acting mayor or acting president |
shall perform the duties and possess all the rights and |
powers of the mayor or president until a mayor or |
president is elected at the next general municipal |
election and has qualified. However, in villages with a |
population of less than 5,000, if each of the trustees |
either declines the election as acting president or is not |
elected by a majority vote of the trustees presently |
holding office, then the trustees may elect, as acting |
president, any other village resident who is qualified to |
hold municipal office, and the acting president shall |
exercise the powers of the president and shall vote and |
have veto power in the manner provided by law for a |
president. |
(2) Alderperson or trustee. If the vacancy is in the |
office of alderperson or trustee, the vacancy must be |
filled by the mayor or president or acting mayor or acting |
president, as the case may be, in accordance with |
subsection (e). |
(3) Other elective office. If the vacancy is in any |
elective municipal office other than mayor or president or |
alderperson or trustee, the mayor or president or acting |
mayor or acting president, as the case may be, must |
appoint a qualified person to hold the office until the |
office is filled by election, subject to the advice and |
|
consent of the city council or the board of trustees, as |
the case may be. |
(g) Vacancies in municipal offices with 2-year terms. In |
the case of an elective municipal office with a 2-year term, if |
the vacancy occurs before the period to file petitions for at |
least 130 days before the general municipal election next |
scheduled under the general election law, the vacancy shall be |
filled for the remainder of the term at that general municipal |
election. If the vacancy occurs after the period to file |
petitions for less than 130 days before the general municipal |
election, then: |
(1) Mayor or president. If the vacancy is in the |
office of mayor or president, the vacancy must be filled |
by the corporate authorities electing one of their members |
as acting mayor or acting president. Except as set forth |
in subsection (d), the acting mayor or acting president |
shall perform the duties and possess all the rights and |
powers of the mayor or president until a mayor or |
president is elected at the next general municipal |
election and has qualified. However, in villages with a |
population of less than 5,000, if each of the trustees |
either declines the election as acting president or is not |
elected by a majority vote of the trustees presently |
holding office, then the trustees may elect, as acting |
president, any other village resident who is qualified to |
hold municipal office, and the acting president shall |
|
exercise the powers of the president and shall vote and |
have veto power in the manner provided by law for a |
president. |
(2) Alderperson or trustee. If the vacancy is in the |
office of alderperson or trustee, the vacancy must be |
filled by the mayor or president or acting mayor or acting |
president, as the case may be, in accordance with |
subsection (e). |
(3) Other elective office. If the vacancy is in any |
elective municipal office other than mayor or president or |
alderperson or trustee, the mayor or president or acting |
mayor or acting president, as the case may be, must |
appoint a qualified person to hold the office until the |
office is filled by election, subject to the advice and |
consent of the city council or the board of trustees, as |
the case may be. |
(h) In cases of vacancies arising by reason of an election |
being declared void pursuant to paragraph (3) of subsection |
(c), persons holding elective office prior thereto shall hold |
office until their successors are elected and qualified or |
appointed and confirmed by advice and consent, as the case may |
be. |
(i) This Section applies only to municipalities with |
populations under 500,000. |
(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21.) |
|
Section 25-15. The Downstate Forest Preserve District Act |
is amended by changing Section 3c-2 as follows: |
(70 ILCS 805/3c-2) |
Sec. 3c-2. Continuous effect of provisions; validation. |
The General Assembly declares that the changes made to |
Sections 3c and 3c-1 by this amendatory Act of the 103rd |
General Assembly shall be deemed to have been in continuous |
effect since November 15, 2021 (the effective date of Public |
Act 102-668 102-688) and shall continue to be in effect until |
they are lawfully repealed. All actions that were taken on or |
after 2021 and before the effective date of this amendatory |
Act of the 103rd General Assembly by a downstate forest |
preserve district or any other person and that are consistent |
with or in reliance on the changes made to Sections 3c and 3c-1 |
by this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly are |
hereby validated. |
(Source: P.A. 103-600, eff. 7-1-24.) |
Section 25-20. The Park District Code is amended by |
changing Sections 2-10a, 2-12a, and 2-25 as follows: |
(70 ILCS 1205/2-10a) (from Ch. 105, par. 2-10a) |
Sec. 2-10a. Any district may provide by referendum, or by |
resolution of the board, that the board shall be comprised of 7 |
commissioners. Any such referendum shall be initiated and held |
|
in the same manner as is provided by the general election law. |
If a majority of the votes cast on the proposition is in |
favor of the 7-member board, or if the board adopts a |
resolution stating that it is acting pursuant to this Section |
in order to create a 7-member board, then whichever of the |
following transition schedules are appropriate shall be |
applied: At the election of commissioners next following by at |
least 225 197 days after the date on which the proposition to |
create a 7-member board was approved at referendum or by |
resolution, the number of commissioners to be elected shall be |
2 more than the number that would otherwise have been elected. |
If this results in the election, pursuant to Section 2-12 of |
this Act, of 4 commissioners at that election, one of the 4, to |
be determined by lot within 30 days after the election, shall |
serve for a term of 4 years or 2 years as the case may be, |
instead of 6 years, so that his term will expire in the same |
year in which the term of only one of the incumbent |
commissioners expires. Thereafter, all commissioners shall be |
elected for 6-year terms as provided in Section 2-12. If the |
creation of a 7-member board results in the election of either |
3 or 4 commissioners, pursuant to Section 2-12a of this Act, at |
that election, 2 of them, to be determined by lot within 30 |
days after the election, shall serve for terms of 2 years |
instead of 4 years. Thereafter, all commissioners shall be |
elected for 4-year terms as provided in Section 2-12a of this |
Act. |
|
In any district where a 7-member board has been created |
pursuant to this Section whether by referendum or by |
resolution, the number of commissioners may later be reduced |
to 5, but only by a referendum initiated and held in the same |
manner as prescribed in this Section for creating a 7-member |
board. No proposition to reduce the number of commissioners |
shall affect the terms of any commissioners holding office at |
the time of the referendum or to be elected within 225 197 days |
after the referendum. If a majority of the votes cast on the |
proposition is in favor of reducing a 7-member board to a |
5-member board, then, at the election of commissioners next |
following by at least 225 197 days after the date on which the |
proposition was approved at referendum, the number of |
commissioners to be elected shall be 2 less than the number |
that would otherwise have been elected and whichever of the |
following transition schedules are appropriate shall be |
applied: (i) if this results in the election of no |
commissioners for a 6-year term pursuant to Section 2-12 of |
this Act, then at the next election in which 3 commissioners |
are scheduled to be elected to 6-year terms as provided in |
Section 2-12, one of the 3, to be determined by lot within 30 |
days after the election, shall serve for a term of 4 years or 2 |
years, as the case may be, instead of 6 years, so that his or |
her term will expire in the same year in which the term of no |
incumbent commissioner is scheduled to expire; thereafter, all |
commissioners shall be elected for 6-year terms as provided in |
|
Section 2-12; or (ii) if the reduction to a 5-member board |
results in the election of one commissioner to a 4-year term, |
pursuant to Section 2-12a of this Act, then at the next |
election in which 4 commissioners are scheduled to be elected |
to 4-year terms as provided in Section 2-12a, one of the 4, to |
be determined by lot within 30 days after the election, shall |
serve for a term of 2 years, instead of 4 years, so that his or |
her term will expire in the same year in which the term of only |
one incumbent commissioner is scheduled to expire; thereafter, |
all commissioners shall be elected for 4-year terms as |
provided in Section 2-12a. |
(Source: P.A. 103-467, eff. 8-4-23.) |
(70 ILCS 1205/2-12a) (from Ch. 105, par. 2-12a) |
Sec. 2-12a. Any district may provide, either by resolution |
of the board or by referendum, that the term of commissioners |
shall be 4 years rather than 6 years. Any such referendum shall |
be initiated and held in the same manner as is provided by the |
general election law for public questions authorized by |
Article VII of the Illinois Constitution. |
If a majority of the votes cast on the proposition is in |
favor of a 4-year term for commissioners, or if the Board |
adopts a resolution stating that it is acting pursuant to this |
Section to change the term of office from 6 years to 4 years, |
commissioners thereafter elected, commencing with the first |
regular park district election at least 225 197 days after the |
|
date on which the proposition for 4-year terms was approved at |
referendum or by resolution, shall be elected for a term of 4 |
years. In order to provide for the transition from 6-year |
terms to 4-year terms: |
(1) If 2 commissioners on a 5-member board are to be |
elected at the first such election and if the term of only |
one commissioner is scheduled to expire in the year of the |
next election at which commissioners are elected, of the 2 |
commissioners elected, one shall serve a 2-year term and |
one a 4-year term, to be determined by lot between the 2 |
persons elected within 30 days after the election. |
(2) On a 7-member board under Section 2-10a, if the |
terms of only 2 commissioners are scheduled to expire in |
the year of the second election at which commissioners are |
elected after the first regular park district election at |
least 225 197 days after the date on which the proposition |
for 4-year terms was approved at referendum or by |
resolution, then: |
(A) if 3 commissioners are elected at the first |
regular election, 2 of the commissioners elected shall |
serve a 2-year term and one shall serve a 4-year term |
to be determined by lot between persons elected within |
30 days after the first election; or |
(B) if 2 commissioners are elected at the first |
regular election, those 2 commissioners elected shall |
serve a 2-year term. |
|
In any district where the board has created 4-year terms |
pursuant to this Section, whether by referendum or by |
resolution, the length of terms may later be increased to 6 |
years, but only by a referendum initiated and held in the same |
manner as prescribed in this Section for creating 4-year |
terms. No proposition to increase the terms of commissioners |
shall affect any commissioner holding office at the time of |
the referendum or to be elected within 225 197 days after the |
referendum. |
(Source: P.A. 103-467, eff. 8-4-23.) |
(70 ILCS 1205/2-25) (from Ch. 105, par. 2-25) |
Sec. 2-25. Vacancies. Whenever any member of the governing |
board of any park district (i) dies, (ii) resigns, (iii) |
becomes under legal disability, (iv) ceases to be a legal |
voter in the district, (v) is convicted in any court located in |
the United States of any infamous crime, bribery, perjury, or |
other felony, (vi) refuses or neglects to take his or her oath |
of office, (vii) neglects to perform the duties of his or her |
office or attend meetings of the board for the length of time |
as the board fixes by ordinance, or (viii) for any other reason |
specified by law, that office may be declared vacant. |
Vacancies shall be filled by appointment by a majority of the |
remaining members of the board. Any person so appointed shall |
hold his or her office until the next regular election for this |
office, at which a member shall be elected to fill the vacancy |
|
for the unexpired term, subject to the following conditions: |
(1) If the vacancy occurs with less than 28 months |
remaining in the term, the person appointed to fill the |
vacancy shall hold his or her office until the expiration |
of the term for which he or she has been appointed, and no |
election to fill the vacancy shall be held. |
(2) If the vacancy occurs with more than 28 months |
left in the term, but less than 151 123 days before the |
next regularly scheduled election for this office, the |
person appointed to fill the vacancy shall hold his or her |
office until the second regularly scheduled election for |
the office following the appointment, at which a member |
shall be elected to fill the vacancy for the unexpired |
term. |
(Source: P.A. 101-257, eff. 8-9-19; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21.) |
Section 25-25. The School Code is amended by changing |
Sections 3A-6 and 34-4.1 as follows: |
(105 ILCS 5/3A-6) (from Ch. 122, par. 3A-6) |
Sec. 3A-6. Election of Superintendent for consolidated |
region - Bond - Vacancies in any educational service region. |
(a) The regional superintendent to be elected under |
Section 3A-5 shall be elected at the time provided in the |
general election law and must possess the qualifications |
described in Section 3-1 of this Act. |
|
(b) The bond required under Section 3-2 shall be filed in |
the office of the county clerk in the county where the regional |
office is situated, and a certified copy of that bond shall be |
filed in the office of the county clerk in each of the other |
counties in the region. |
(c) When a vacancy occurs in the office of regional |
superintendent of schools of any educational service region |
which is not located in a county which is a home rule unit, |
such vacancy shall be filled within 60 days (i) by appointment |
of the chairman of the county board, with the advice and |
consent of the county board, when such vacancy occurs in a |
single county educational service region; or (ii) by |
appointment of a committee composed of the chairmen of the |
county boards of those counties comprising the affected |
educational service region when such vacancy occurs in a |
multicounty educational service region, each committeeman to |
be entitled to one vote for each vote that was received in the |
county represented by such committeeman on the committee by |
the regional superintendent of schools whose office is vacant |
at the last election at which a regional superintendent was |
elected to such office, and the person receiving the highest |
number of affirmative votes from the committeemen for such |
vacant office to be deemed the person appointed by such |
committee to fill the vacancy. The appointee shall be a member |
of the same political party as the regional superintendent of |
schools the appointee succeeds was at the time such regional |
|
superintendent of schools last was elected. The appointee |
shall serve for the remainder of the term. However, if more |
than 28 months remain in that term and the vacancy occurs at |
least 130 days before the next general election, the |
appointment shall be until the next general election, at which |
time the vacated office shall be filled by election for the |
remainder of the term. Nominations shall be made and any |
vacancy in nomination shall be filled as follows: |
(1) If the vacancy in office occurs before the first |
date provided in Section 7-12 of the Election Code for |
filing nomination papers for county offices for the |
primary in the next even-numbered year following |
commencement of the term of office in which the vacancy |
occurs, nominations for the election for filling the |
vacancy shall be made pursuant to Article 7 of the |
Election Code. |
(2) If the vacancy in office occurs during the time |
provided in Section 7-12 of the Election Code for filing |
nomination papers for county offices for the primary in |
the next even-numbered year following commencement of the |
term of office in which the vacancy occurs, the time for |
filing nomination papers for the primary shall not be more |
than 120 91 days nor less than 113 85 days prior to the |
date of the primary. |
(3) If the vacancy in office occurs after the last day |
provided in Section 7-12 of the Election Code for filing |
|
nomination papers for county offices for the primary in |
the next even-numbered year following commencement of the |
term of office in which the vacancy occurs, a vacancy in |
nomination shall be deemed to have occurred and the county |
central committee of each established political party (if |
the vacancy occurs in a single county educational service |
region) or the multi-county educational service region |
committee of each established political party (if the |
vacancy occurs in a multi-county educational service |
region) shall nominate, by resolution, a candidate to fill |
the vacancy in nomination for election to the office at |
the general election. In the nomination proceedings to |
fill the vacancy in nomination, each member of the county |
central committee or the multi-county educational service |
region committee, whichever applies, shall have the voting |
strength as set forth in Section 7-8 or 7-8.02 of the |
Election Code, respectively. The name of the candidate so |
nominated shall not appear on the ballot at the general |
primary election. The vacancy in nomination shall be |
filled prior to the date of certification of candidates |
for the general election. |
(4) The resolution to fill the vacancy shall be duly |
acknowledged before an officer qualified to take |
acknowledgments of deeds and shall include, upon its face, |
the following information: (A) the name of the original |
nominee and the office vacated; (B) the date on which the |
|
vacancy occurred; and (C) the name and address of the |
nominee selected to fill the vacancy and the date of |
selection. The resolution to fill the vacancy shall be |
accompanied by a statement of candidacy, as prescribed in |
Section 7-10 of the Election Code, completed by the |
selected nominee, a certificate from the State Board of |
Education, as prescribed in Section 3-1 of this Code, and |
a receipt indicating that the nominee has filed a |
statement of economic interests as required by the |
Illinois Governmental Ethics Act. |
The provisions of Sections 10-8 through 10-10.1 of the |
Election Code relating to objections to nomination papers, |
hearings on objections, and judicial review shall also apply |
to and govern objections to nomination papers and resolutions |
for filling vacancies in nomination filed pursuant to this |
Section. Unless otherwise specified in this Section, the |
nomination and election provided for in this Section is |
governed by the general election law. |
Except as otherwise provided by applicable county |
ordinance or by law, if a vacancy occurs in the office of |
regional superintendent of schools of an educational service |
region that is located in a county that is a home rule unit and |
that has a population of less than 2,000,000 inhabitants, that |
vacancy shall be filled by the county board of such home rule |
county. |
Any person appointed to fill a vacancy in the office of |
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regional superintendent of schools of any educational service |
region must possess the qualifications required to be elected |
to the position of regional superintendent of schools, and |
shall obtain a certificate of eligibility from the State |
Superintendent of Education and file same with the county |
clerk of the county in which the regional superintendent's |
office is located. |
If the regional superintendent of schools is called into |
the active military service of the United States, his office |
shall not be deemed to be vacant, but a temporary appointment |
shall be made as in the case of a vacancy. The appointee shall |
perform all the duties of the regional superintendent of |
schools during the time the regional superintendent of schools |
is in the active military service of the United States, and |
shall be paid the same compensation apportioned as to the time |
of service, and such appointment and all authority thereunder |
shall cease upon the discharge of the regional superintendent |
of schools from such active military service. The appointee |
shall give the same bond as is required of a regularly elected |
regional superintendent of schools. |
(Source: P.A. 96-893, eff. 7-1-10.) |
(105 ILCS 5/34-4.1) |
Sec. 34-4.1. Nomination petitions. In addition to the |
requirements of the general election law, the form of |
petitions under Section 34-4 of this Code shall be |
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substantially as follows: |
NOMINATING PETITIONS |
(LEAVE OUT THE INAPPLICABLE PART.) |
To the Board of Election Commissioners for the City of |
Chicago: |
We the undersigned, being (.... or more) of the voters |
residing within said district, hereby petition that .... who |
resides at .... in the City of Chicago shall be a candidate for |
the office of .... of the Chicago Board of Education (full |
term) (vacancy) to be voted for at the election to be held on |
(insert date). |
Name: .................. Address: ................... |
In the designation of the name of a candidate on a petition |
for nomination, the candidate's given name or names, initial |
or initials, a nickname by which the candidate is commonly |
known, or a combination thereof may be used in addition to the |
candidate's surname. If a candidate has changed his or her |
name, whether by a statutory or common law procedure in |
Illinois or any other jurisdiction, within 3 years before the |
last day for filing the petition, then (i) the candidate's |
name on the petition must be followed by "formerly known as |
(list all prior names during the 3-year period) until name |
changed on (list date of each such name change)" and (ii) the |
petition must be accompanied by the candidate's affidavit |
stating the candidate's previous names during the period |
specified in clause (i) and the date or dates each of those |
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names was changed; failure to meet these requirements shall be |
grounds for denying certification of the candidate's name for |
the ballot, but these requirements do not apply to name |
changes to conform a candidate's name to the candidate's |
identity or name changes resulting from adoption to assume an |
adoptive parent's or parents' surname, marriage or civil union |
to assume a spouse's surname, or dissolution of marriage or |
civil union or declaration of invalidity of marriage to assume |
a former surname. No other designation, such as a political |
slogan, as defined by Section 7-17 of the Election Code, title |
or degree, or nickname suggesting or implying possession of a |
title, degree or professional status, or similar information |
may be used in connection with the candidate's surname. |
All petitions for the nomination of members of the Chicago |
Board of Education shall be filed with the board of election |
commissioners of the jurisdiction in which the principal |
office of the school district is located and within the time |
provided for by Article 7 of the Election Code, except that |
petitions for the nomination of members of the Chicago Board |
of Education for the 2024 general election shall be prepared, |
filed, and certified as outlined in Article 10 of the Election |
Code. The board of election commissioners shall receive and |
file only those petitions that include a statement of |
candidacy, the required number of voter signatures, the |
notarized signature of the petition circulator, and a receipt |
from the county clerk showing that the candidate has filed a |
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statement of economic interests interest on or before the last |
day to file as required by the Illinois Governmental Ethics |
Act. The board of election commissioners may have petition |
forms available for issuance to potential candidates and may |
give notice of the petition filing period by publication in a |
newspaper of general circulation within the school district |
not less than 10 days prior to the first day of filing. The |
board of election commissioners shall make certification to |
the proper election authorities in accordance with the general |
election law. |
The board of election commissioners of the jurisdiction in |
which the principal office of the school district is located |
shall notify the candidates for whom a petition for nomination |
is filed or the appropriate committee of the obligations under |
the Campaign Financing Act as provided in the general election |
law. Such notice shall be given on a form prescribed by the |
State Board of Elections and in accordance with the |
requirements of the general election law. The board of |
election commissioners shall within 7 days of filing or on the |
last day for filing, whichever is earlier, acknowledge to the |
petitioner in writing the office's acceptance of the petition. |
A candidate for membership on the Chicago Board of |
Education who has petitioned for nomination to fill a full |
term and to fill a vacant term to be voted upon at the same |
election must withdraw his or her petition for nomination from |
either the full term or the vacant term by written |
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declaration. |
Nomination petitions are not valid unless the candidate |
named therein files with the board of election commissioners a |
receipt from the county clerk showing that the candidate has |
filed a statement of economic interests as required by the |
Illinois Governmental Ethics Act. Such receipt shall be so |
filed either previously during the calendar year in which his |
or her nomination papers were filed or within the period for |
the filing of nomination papers in accordance with the general |
election law. |
(Source: P.A. 102-177, eff. 6-1-22; 102-691, eff. 12-17-21; |
103-467, eff. 8-4-23; 103-584, eff. 3-18-24; revised 6-27-25.) |
Article 35. |
Section 35-5. "AN ACT concerning employment", approved |
June 30, 2025, (Public Act 104-17) is amended by changing |
Section 99 as follows: |
(P.A. 104-17, Sec. 99) |
Sec. 99. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon |
becoming law, except that Section 10 takes effect July 1, |
2026. |
(Source: P.A. 104-17, eff. 6-30-2025.) |
Article 40. |
|
Section 40-5. The Regional Transportation Authority Act is |
amended by changing Sections 4.01 and 4.09 as follows: |
(70 ILCS 3615/4.01) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 704.01) |
Sec. 4.01. Budget and Program. |
(a) The Board shall control the finances of the Authority. |
It shall by ordinance adopted by the affirmative vote of at |
least 12 of its then Directors (i) appropriate money to |
perform the Authority's purposes and provide for payment of |
debts and expenses of the Authority, (ii) take action with |
respect to the budget and two-year financial plan of each |
Service Board, as provided in Section 4.11, and (iii) adopt an |
Annual Budget and Two-Year Financial Plan for the Authority |
that includes the annual budget and two-year financial plan of |
each Service Board that has been approved by the Authority. |
The Annual Budget and Two-Year Financial Plan shall contain a |
statement of the funds estimated to be on hand for the |
Authority and each Service Board at the beginning of the |
fiscal year, the funds estimated to be received from all |
sources for such year, the estimated expenses and obligations |
of the Authority and each Service Board for all purposes, |
including expenses for contributions to be made with respect |
to pension and other employee benefits, and the funds |
estimated to be on hand at the end of such year. The fiscal |
year of the Authority and each Service Board shall begin on |
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January 1st and end on the succeeding December 31st. By July |
1st of each year the Director of the Illinois Governor's |
Office of Management and Budget (formerly Bureau of the |
Budget) shall submit to the Authority an estimate of revenues |
for the next fiscal year of the Authority to be collected from |
the taxes imposed by the Authority and the amounts to be |
available in the Public Transportation Fund and the Regional |
Transportation Authority Occupation and Use Tax Replacement |
Fund and the amounts otherwise to be appropriated by the State |
to the Authority for its purposes. The Authority shall file a |
copy of its Annual Budget and Two-Year Financial Plan with the |
General Assembly and the Governor after its adoption. Before |
the proposed Annual Budget and Two-Year Financial Plan is |
adopted, the Authority shall hold at least one public hearing |
thereon in the metropolitan region, and shall meet with the |
county board or its designee of each of the several counties in |
the metropolitan region. After conducting such hearings and |
holding such meetings and after making such changes in the |
proposed Annual Budget and Two-Year Financial Plan as the |
Board deems appropriate, the Board shall adopt its annual |
appropriation and Annual Budget and Two-Year Financial Plan |
ordinance. The ordinance may be adopted only upon the |
affirmative votes of 12 of its then Directors. The ordinance |
shall appropriate such sums of money as are deemed necessary |
to defray all necessary expenses and obligations of the |
Authority, specifying purposes and the objects or programs for |
|
which appropriations are made and the amount appropriated for |
each object or program. Additional appropriations, transfers |
between items and other changes in such ordinance may be made |
from time to time by the Board upon the affirmative votes of 12 |
of its then Directors. |
(b) The Annual Budget and Two-Year Financial Plan shall |
show a balance between anticipated revenues from all sources |
and anticipated expenses including funding of operating |
deficits or the discharge of encumbrances incurred in prior |
periods and payment of principal and interest when due, and |
shall show cash balances sufficient to pay with reasonable |
promptness all obligations and expenses as incurred. |
The Annual Budget and Two-Year Financial Plan must show: |
(i) that the level of fares and charges for mass |
transportation provided by, or under grant or purchase of |
service contracts of, the Service Boards is sufficient to |
cause the aggregate of all projected fare revenues from |
such fares and charges received in each fiscal year to |
equal at least 50% of the aggregate costs of providing |
such public transportation in such fiscal year. However, |
due to the fiscal impacts of the COVID-19 pandemic, the |
aggregate of all projected fare revenues from such fares |
and charges received in fiscal years 2021, 2022, 2023, |
2024, and 2025, and 2026 may be less than 50% of the |
aggregate costs of providing such public transportation in |
those fiscal years. "Fare revenues" include the proceeds |
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of all fares and charges for services provided, |
contributions received in connection with public |
transportation from units of local government other than |
the Authority, except for contributions received by the |
Chicago Transit Authority from a real estate transfer tax |
imposed under subsection (i) of Section 8-3-19 of the |
Illinois Municipal Code, and from the State pursuant to |
subsection (i) of Section 2705-305 of the Department of |
Transportation Law (20 ILCS 2705/2705-305), and all other |
operating revenues properly included consistent with |
generally accepted accounting principles but do not |
include: the proceeds of any borrowings, and, beginning |
with the 2007 fiscal year, all revenues and receipts, |
including but not limited to fares and grants received |
from the federal, State or any unit of local government or |
other entity, derived from providing ADA paratransit |
service pursuant to Section 2.30 of the Regional |
Transportation Authority Act. "Costs" include all items |
properly included as operating costs consistent with |
generally accepted accounting principles, including |
administrative costs, but do not include: depreciation; |
payment of principal and interest on bonds, notes or other |
evidences of obligation for borrowed money issued by the |
Authority; payments with respect to public transportation |
facilities made pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 2.20 |
of this Act; any payments with respect to rate protection |
|
contracts, credit enhancements or liquidity agreements |
made under Section 4.14; any other cost to which it is |
reasonably expected that a cash expenditure will not be |
made; costs for passenger security including grants, |
contracts, personnel, equipment and administrative |
expenses, except in the case of the Chicago Transit |
Authority, in which case the term does not include costs |
spent annually by that entity for protection against crime |
as required by Section 27a of the Metropolitan Transit |
Authority Act; the payment by the Chicago Transit |
Authority of Debt Service, as defined in Section 12c of |
the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act, on bonds or notes |
issued pursuant to that Section; the payment by the |
Commuter Rail Division of debt service on bonds issued |
pursuant to Section 3B.09; expenses incurred by the |
Suburban Bus Division for the cost of new public |
transportation services funded from grants pursuant to |
Section 2.01e of this amendatory Act of the 95th General |
Assembly for a period of 2 years from the date of |
initiation of each such service; costs as exempted by the |
Board for projects pursuant to Section 2.09 of this Act; |
or, beginning with the 2007 fiscal year, expenses related |
to providing ADA paratransit service pursuant to Section |
2.30 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act; and in |
fiscal years 2008 through 2012 inclusive, costs in the |
amount of $200,000,000 in fiscal year 2008, reducing by |
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$40,000,000 in each fiscal year thereafter until this |
exemption is eliminated; and |
(ii) that the level of fares charged for ADA |
paratransit services is sufficient to cause the aggregate |
of all projected revenues from such fares charged and |
received in each fiscal year to equal at least 10% of the |
aggregate costs of providing such ADA paratransit |
services. However, due to the fiscal impacts of the |
COVID-19 pandemic, the aggregate of all projected fare |
revenues from such fares and charges received in fiscal |
years 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, and 2025, and 2026 may be |
less than 10% of the aggregate costs of providing such ADA |
paratransit services in those fiscal years. For purposes |
of this Act, the percentages in this subsection (b)(ii) |
shall be referred to as the "system generated ADA |
paratransit services revenue recovery ratio". For purposes |
of the system generated ADA paratransit services revenue |
recovery ratio, "costs" shall include all items properly |
included as operating costs consistent with generally |
accepted accounting principles. However, the Board may |
exclude from costs an amount that does not exceed the |
allowable "capital costs of contracting" for ADA |
paratransit services pursuant to the Federal Transit |
Administration guidelines for the Urbanized Area Formula |
Program. |
The Authority shall file a statement certifying that the |
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Service Boards published the data described in subsection |
(b-5) with the General Assembly and the Governor after |
adoption of the Annual Budget and Two-Year Financial Plan |
required by subsection (a). If the Authority fails to file a |
statement certifying publication of the data, then the |
appropriations to the Department of Transportation for grants |
to the Authority intended to reimburse the Service Boards for |
providing free and reduced fares shall be withheld. |
(b-5) For fiscal years 2024 and 2025, the Service Boards |
must publish a monthly comprehensive set of data regarding |
transit service and safety. The data included shall include |
information to track operations including: |
(1) staffing levels, including numbers of budgeted |
positions, current positions employed, hired staff, |
attrition, staff in training, and absenteeism rates; |
(2) scheduled service and delivered service, including |
percentage of scheduled service delivered by day, service |
by mode of transportation, service by route and rail line, |
total number of revenue miles driven, excess wait times by |
day, by mode of transportation, by bus route, and by stop; |
and |
(3) safety on the system, including the number of |
incidents of crime and code of conduct violations on |
system, any performance measures used to evaluate the |
effectiveness of investments in private security, safety |
equipment, and other security investments in the system. |
|
If no performance measures exist to evaluate the |
effectiveness of these safety investments, the Service |
Boards and Authority shall develop and publish these |
performance measures. |
The Authority and Service Boards shall solicit input and |
ideas on publishing data on the service reliability, |
operations, and safety of the system from the public and |
groups representing transit riders, workers, and businesses. |
(c) The actual administrative expenses of the Authority |
for the fiscal year commencing January 1, 1985 may not exceed |
$5,000,000. The actual administrative expenses of the |
Authority for the fiscal year commencing January 1, 1986, and |
for each fiscal year thereafter shall not exceed the maximum |
administrative expenses for the previous fiscal year plus 5%. |
"Administrative expenses" are defined for purposes of this |
Section as all expenses except: (1) capital expenses and |
purchases of the Authority on behalf of the Service Boards; |
(2) payments to Service Boards; and (3) payment of principal |
and interest on bonds, notes or other evidence of obligation |
for borrowed money issued by the Authority; (4) costs for |
passenger security including grants, contracts, personnel, |
equipment and administrative expenses; (5) payments with |
respect to public transportation facilities made pursuant to |
subsection (b) of Section 2.20 of this Act; and (6) any |
payments with respect to rate protection contracts, credit |
enhancements or liquidity agreements made pursuant to Section |
|
4.14. |
(d) This subsection applies only until the Department |
begins administering and enforcing an increased tax under |
Section 4.03(m) as authorized by this amendatory Act of the |
95th General Assembly. After withholding 15% of the proceeds |
of any tax imposed by the Authority and 15% of money received |
by the Authority from the Regional Transportation Authority |
Occupation and Use Tax Replacement Fund, the Board shall |
allocate the proceeds and money remaining to the Service |
Boards as follows: (1) an amount equal to 85% of the proceeds |
of those taxes collected within the City of Chicago and 85% of |
the money received by the Authority on account of transfers to |
the Regional Transportation Authority Occupation and Use Tax |
Replacement Fund from the County and Mass Transit District |
Fund attributable to retail sales within the City of Chicago |
shall be allocated to the Chicago Transit Authority; (2) an |
amount equal to 85% of the proceeds of those taxes collected |
within Cook County outside the City of Chicago and 85% of the |
money received by the Authority on account of transfers to the |
Regional Transportation Authority Occupation and Use Tax |
Replacement Fund from the County and Mass Transit District |
Fund attributable to retail sales within Cook County outside |
of the city of Chicago shall be allocated 30% to the Chicago |
Transit Authority, 55% to the Commuter Rail Board and 15% to |
the Suburban Bus Board; and (3) an amount equal to 85% of the |
proceeds of the taxes collected within the Counties of DuPage, |
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Kane, Lake, McHenry and Will shall be allocated 70% to the |
Commuter Rail Board and 30% to the Suburban Bus Board. |
(e) This subsection applies only until the Department |
begins administering and enforcing an increased tax under |
Section 4.03(m) as authorized by this amendatory Act of the |
95th General Assembly. Moneys received by the Authority on |
account of transfers to the Regional Transportation Authority |
Occupation and Use Tax Replacement Fund from the State and |
Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be allocated among the |
Authority and the Service Boards as follows: 15% of such |
moneys shall be retained by the Authority and the remaining |
85% shall be transferred to the Service Boards as soon as may |
be practicable after the Authority receives payment. Moneys |
which are distributable to the Service Boards pursuant to the |
preceding sentence shall be allocated among the Service Boards |
on the basis of each Service Board's distribution ratio. The |
term "distribution ratio" means, for purposes of this |
subsection (e) of this Section 4.01, the ratio of the total |
amount distributed to a Service Board pursuant to subsection |
(d) of Section 4.01 for the immediately preceding calendar |
year to the total amount distributed to all of the Service |
Boards pursuant to subsection (d) of Section 4.01 for the |
immediately preceding calendar year. |
(f) To carry out its duties and responsibilities under |
this Act, the Board shall employ staff which shall: (1) |
propose for adoption by the Board of the Authority rules for |
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the Service Boards that establish (i) forms and schedules to |
be used and information required to be provided with respect |
to a five-year capital program, annual budgets, and two-year |
financial plans and regular reporting of actual results |
against adopted budgets and financial plans, (ii) financial |
practices to be followed in the budgeting and expenditure of |
public funds, (iii) assumptions and projections that must be |
followed in preparing and submitting its annual budget and |
two-year financial plan or a five-year capital program; (2) |
evaluate for the Board public transportation programs operated |
or proposed by the Service Boards and transportation agencies |
in terms of the goals and objectives set out in the Strategic |
Plan; (3) keep the Board and the public informed of the extent |
to which the Service Boards and transportation agencies are |
meeting the goals and objectives adopted by the Authority in |
the Strategic Plan; and (4) assess the efficiency or adequacy |
of public transportation services provided by a Service Board |
and make recommendations for change in that service to the end |
that the moneys available to the Authority may be expended in |
the most economical manner possible with the least possible |
duplication. |
(g) All Service Boards, transportation agencies, |
comprehensive planning agencies, including the Chicago |
Metropolitan Agency for Planning, or transportation planning |
agencies in the metropolitan region shall furnish to the |
Authority such information pertaining to public transportation |
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or relevant for plans therefor as it may from time to time |
require. The Executive Director, or his or her designee, |
shall, for the purpose of securing any such information |
necessary or appropriate to carry out any of the powers and |
responsibilities of the Authority under this Act, have access |
to, and the right to examine, all books, documents, papers or |
records of a Service Board or any transportation agency |
receiving funds from the Authority or Service Board, and such |
Service Board or transportation agency shall comply with any |
request by the Executive Director, or his or her designee, |
within 30 days or an extended time provided by the Executive |
Director. |
(h) No Service Board shall undertake any capital |
improvement which is not identified in the Five-Year Capital |
Program. |
(i) Each Service Board shall furnish to the Board access |
to its financial information including, but not limited to, |
audits and reports. The Board shall have real-time access to |
the financial information of the Service Boards; however, the |
Board shall be granted read-only access to the Service Board's |
financial information. |
(Source: P.A. 102-678, eff. 12-10-21; 103-281, eff. 1-1-24.) |
(70 ILCS 3615/4.09) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 704.09) |
Sec. 4.09. Public Transportation Fund and the Regional |
Transportation Authority Occupation and Use Tax Replacement |
|
Fund. |
(a)(1) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (4), as |
soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning |
July 1, 1984, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, |
the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer |
shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to a special fund |
in the State Treasury to be known as the Public Transportation |
Fund an amount equal to 25% of the net revenue, before the |
deduction of the serviceman and retailer discounts pursuant to |
Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3 of |
the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, realized from any tax |
imposed by the Authority pursuant to Sections 4.03 and 4.03.1 |
and 25% of the amounts deposited into the Regional |
Transportation Authority tax fund created by Section 4.03 of |
this Act, from the County and Mass Transit District Fund as |
provided in Section 6z-20 of the State Finance Act and 25% of |
the amounts deposited into the Regional Transportation |
Authority Occupation and Use Tax Replacement Fund from the |
State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund as provided in Section |
6z-17 of the State Finance Act. On the first day of the month |
following the date that the Department receives revenues from |
increased taxes under Section 4.03(m) as authorized by Public |
Act 95-708, in lieu of the transfers authorized in the |
preceding sentence, upon certification of the Department of |
Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the |
Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the |
|
Public Transportation Fund an amount equal to 25% of the net |
revenue, before the deduction of the serviceman and retailer |
discounts pursuant to Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax |
Act and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, |
realized from (i) 80% of the proceeds of any tax imposed by the |
Authority at a rate of 1.25% in Cook County, (ii) 75% of the |
proceeds of any tax imposed by the Authority at the rate of 1% |
in Cook County, and (iii) one-third of the proceeds of any tax |
imposed by the Authority at the rate of 0.75% in the Counties |
of DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will, all pursuant to |
Section 4.03, and 25% of the net revenue realized from any tax |
imposed by the Authority pursuant to Section 4.03.1, and 25% |
of the amounts deposited into the Regional Transportation |
Authority tax fund created by Section 4.03 of this Act from the |
County and Mass Transit District Fund as provided in Section |
6z-20 of the State Finance Act, and 25% of the amounts |
deposited into the Regional Transportation Authority |
Occupation and Use Tax Replacement Fund from the State and |
Local Sales Tax Reform Fund as provided in Section 6z-17 of the |
State Finance Act. As used in this Section, net revenue |
realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the |
State pursuant to Sections 4.03 and 4.03.1 during the previous |
month from within the metropolitan region, less the amount |
paid out during that same month as refunds to taxpayers for |
overpayment of liability in the metropolitan region under |
Sections 4.03 and 4.03.1. |
|
Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, |
beginning on July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act |
100-23), those amounts required under this paragraph (1) of |
subsection (a) to be transferred by the Treasurer into the |
Public Transportation Fund from the General Revenue Fund shall |
be directly deposited into the Public Transportation Fund as |
the revenues are realized from the taxes indicated. |
(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (4), on |
February 1, 2009 (the first day of the month following the |
effective date of Public Act 95-708) and each month |
thereafter, upon certification by the Department of Revenue, |
the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer |
shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Public |
Transportation Fund an amount equal to 5% of the net revenue, |
before the deduction of the serviceman and retailer discounts |
pursuant to Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and |
Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, realized from |
any tax imposed by the Authority pursuant to Sections 4.03 and |
4.03.1 and certified by the Department of Revenue under |
Section 4.03(n) of this Act to be paid to the Authority and 5% |
of the amounts deposited into the Regional Transportation |
Authority tax fund created by Section 4.03 of this Act from the |
County and Mass Transit District Fund as provided in Section |
6z-20 of the State Finance Act, and 5% of the amounts deposited |
into the Regional Transportation Authority Occupation and Use |
Tax Replacement Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform |
|
Fund as provided in Section 6z-17 of the State Finance Act, and |
5% of the revenue realized by the Chicago Transit Authority as |
financial assistance from the City of Chicago from the |
proceeds of any tax imposed by the City of Chicago under |
Section 8-3-19 of the Illinois Municipal Code. |
Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, |
beginning on July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act |
100-23), those amounts required under this paragraph (2) of |
subsection (a) to be transferred by the Treasurer into the |
Public Transportation Fund from the General Revenue Fund shall |
be directly deposited into the Public Transportation Fund as |
the revenues are realized from the taxes indicated. |
(3) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (4), as soon |
as possible after the first day of January, 2009 and each month |
thereafter, upon certification of the Department of Revenue |
with respect to the taxes collected under Section 4.03, the |
Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall |
transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Public |
Transportation Fund an amount equal to 25% of the net revenue, |
before the deduction of the serviceman and retailer discounts |
pursuant to Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and |
Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, realized from |
(i) 20% of the proceeds of any tax imposed by the Authority at |
a rate of 1.25% in Cook County, (ii) 25% of the proceeds of any |
tax imposed by the Authority at the rate of 1% in Cook County, |
and (iii) one-third of the proceeds of any tax imposed by the |
|
Authority at the rate of 0.75% in the Counties of DuPage, Kane, |
Lake, McHenry, and Will, all pursuant to Section 4.03, and the |
Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall |
transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Public |
Transportation Fund (iv) an amount equal to 25% of the revenue |
realized by the Chicago Transit Authority as financial |
assistance from the City of Chicago from the proceeds of any |
tax imposed by the City of Chicago under Section 8-3-19 of the |
Illinois Municipal Code. |
Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, |
beginning on July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act |
100-23), those amounts required under this paragraph (3) of |
subsection (a) to be transferred by the Treasurer into the |
Public Transportation Fund from the General Revenue Fund shall |
be directly deposited into the Public Transportation Fund as |
the revenues are realized from the taxes indicated. |
(4) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, |
for the State fiscal year beginning July 1, 2024 and each State |
fiscal year thereafter, the first $150,000,000 that would have |
otherwise been transferred from the General Revenue Fund and |
deposited into the Public Transportation Fund as provided in |
paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection (a) shall |
instead be transferred from the Road Fund by the Treasurer |
upon certification by the Department of Revenue and order of |
the Comptroller. For the State fiscal year beginning July 1, |
2024, only, the next $75,000,000 that would have otherwise |
|
been transferred from the General Revenue Fund and deposited |
into the Public Transportation Fund as provided in paragraphs |
(1), (2), and (3) of this subsection (a) shall instead be |
transferred from the Road Fund and deposited into the Public |
Transportation Fund by the Treasurer upon certification by the |
Department of Revenue and order of the Comptroller. The funds |
authorized and transferred pursuant to this amendatory Act of |
the 103rd General Assembly are not intended or planned for |
road construction projects. For the State fiscal year |
beginning July 1, 2024, only, the next $50,000,000 that would |
have otherwise been transferred from the General Revenue Fund |
and deposited into the Public Transportation Fund as provided |
in paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection (a) shall |
instead be transferred from the Underground Storage Tank Fund |
and deposited into the Public Transportation Fund by the |
Treasurer upon certification by the Department of Revenue and |
order of the Comptroller. The remaining balance shall be |
deposited each State fiscal year as otherwise provided in |
paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection (a). |
(5) (Blank). |
(6) (Blank). |
(7) For State fiscal year 2020 only, notwithstanding any |
provision of law to the contrary, the total amount of revenue |
and deposits under this Section attributable to revenues |
realized during State fiscal year 2020 shall be reduced by 5%. |
(8) For State fiscal year 2021 only, notwithstanding any |
|
provision of law to the contrary, the total amount of revenue |
and deposits under this Section attributable to revenues |
realized during State fiscal year 2021 shall be reduced by 5%. |
(b)(1) All moneys deposited in the Public Transportation |
Fund and the Regional Transportation Authority Occupation and |
Use Tax Replacement Fund, whether deposited pursuant to this |
Section or otherwise, are allocated to the Authority, except |
for amounts appropriated to the Office of the Executive |
Inspector General as authorized by subsection (h) of Section |
4.03.3 and amounts transferred to the Audit Expense Fund |
pursuant to Section 6z-27 of the State Finance Act. The |
Comptroller, as soon as possible after each monthly transfer |
provided in this Section and after each deposit into the |
Public Transportation Fund, shall order the Treasurer to pay |
to the Authority out of the Public Transportation Fund the |
amount so transferred or deposited. Any Additional State |
Assistance and Additional Financial Assistance paid to the |
Authority under this Section shall be expended by the |
Authority for its purposes as provided in this Act. The |
balance of the amounts paid to the Authority from the Public |
Transportation Fund shall be expended by the Authority as |
provided in Section 4.03.3. The Comptroller, as soon as |
possible after each deposit into the Regional Transportation |
Authority Occupation and Use Tax Replacement Fund provided in |
this Section and Section 6z-17 of the State Finance Act, shall |
order the Treasurer to pay to the Authority out of the Regional |
|
Transportation Authority Occupation and Use Tax Replacement |
Fund the amount so deposited. Such amounts paid to the |
Authority may be expended by it for its purposes as provided in |
this Act. The provisions directing the distributions from the |
Public Transportation Fund and the Regional Transportation |
Authority Occupation and Use Tax Replacement Fund provided for |
in this Section shall constitute an irrevocable and continuing |
appropriation of all amounts as provided herein. The State |
Treasurer and State Comptroller are hereby authorized and |
directed to make distributions as provided in this Section. |
(2) Provided, however, no moneys deposited under subsection |
(a) of this Section shall be paid from the Public |
Transportation Fund to the Authority or its assignee for any |
fiscal year until the Authority has certified to the Governor, |
the Comptroller, and the Mayor of the City of Chicago that it |
has adopted for that fiscal year an Annual Budget and Two-Year |
Financial Plan meeting the requirements in Section 4.01(b). |
(c) In recognition of the efforts of the Authority to |
enhance the mass transportation facilities under its control, |
the State shall provide financial assistance ("Additional |
State Assistance") in excess of the amounts transferred to the |
Authority from the General Revenue Fund under subsection (a) |
of this Section. Additional State Assistance shall be |
calculated as provided in subsection (d), but shall in no |
event exceed the following specified amounts with respect to |
the following State fiscal years: |
|
|
1990 | $5,000,000; | |
1991 | $5,000,000; | |
1992 | $10,000,000; | |
1993 | $10,000,000; | |
1994 | $20,000,000; | |
1995 | $30,000,000; | |
1996 | $40,000,000; | |
1997 | $50,000,000; | |
1998 | $55,000,000; and | |
each year thereafter | $55,000,000. |
|
(c-5) The State shall provide financial assistance |
("Additional Financial Assistance") in addition to the |
Additional State Assistance provided by subsection (c) and the |
amounts transferred to the Authority from the General Revenue |
Fund under subsection (a) of this Section. Additional |
Financial Assistance provided by this subsection shall be |
calculated as provided in subsection (d), but shall in no |
event exceed the following specified amounts with respect to |
the following State fiscal years: |
|
2000 | $0; | |
2001 | $16,000,000; | |
2002 | $35,000,000; | |
2003 | $54,000,000; | |
2004 | $73,000,000; | |
2005 | $93,000,000; and | |
each year thereafter | $100,000,000. |
|
|
(d) Beginning with State fiscal year 1990 and continuing |
for each State fiscal year thereafter, the Authority shall |
annually certify to the State Comptroller and State Treasurer, |
separately with respect to each of subdivisions (g)(2) and |
(g)(3) of Section 4.04 of this Act, the following amounts: |
(1) The amount necessary and required, during the |
State fiscal year with respect to which the certification |
is made, to pay its obligations for debt service on all |
outstanding bonds or notes issued by the Authority under |
subdivisions (g)(2) and (g)(3) of Section 4.04 of this |
Act. |
(2) An estimate of the amount necessary and required |
to pay its obligations for debt service for any bonds or |
notes which the Authority anticipates it will issue under |
subdivisions (g)(2) and (g)(3) of Section 4.04 during that |
State fiscal year. |
(3) Its debt service savings during the preceding |
State fiscal year from refunding or advance refunding of |
bonds or notes issued under subdivisions (g)(2) and (g)(3) |
of Section 4.04. |
(4) The amount of interest, if any, earned by the |
Authority during the previous State fiscal year on the |
proceeds of bonds or notes issued pursuant to subdivisions |
(g)(2) and (g)(3) of Section 4.04, other than refunding or |
advance refunding bonds or notes. |
The certification shall include a specific schedule of |
|
debt service payments, including the date and amount of each |
payment for all outstanding bonds or notes and an estimated |
schedule of anticipated debt service for all bonds and notes |
it intends to issue, if any, during that State fiscal year, |
including the estimated date and estimated amount of each |
payment. |
Immediately upon the issuance of bonds for which an |
estimated schedule of debt service payments was prepared, the |
Authority shall file an amended certification with respect to |
item (2) above, to specify the actual schedule of debt service |
payments, including the date and amount of each payment, for |
the remainder of the State fiscal year. |
On the first day of each month of the State fiscal year in |
which there are bonds outstanding with respect to which the |
certification is made, the State Comptroller shall order |
transferred and the State Treasurer shall transfer from the |
Road Fund to the Public Transportation Fund the Additional |
State Assistance and Additional Financial Assistance in an |
amount equal to the aggregate of (i) one-twelfth of the sum of |
the amounts certified under items (1) and (3) above less the |
amount certified under item (4) above, plus (ii) the amount |
required to pay debt service on bonds and notes issued during |
the fiscal year, if any, divided by the number of months |
remaining in the fiscal year after the date of issuance, or |
some smaller portion as may be necessary under subsection (c) |
or (c-5) of this Section for the relevant State fiscal year, |
|
plus (iii) any cumulative deficiencies in transfers for prior |
months, until an amount equal to the sum of the amounts |
certified under items (1) and (3) above, plus the actual debt |
service certified under item (2) above, less the amount |
certified under item (4) above, has been transferred; except |
that these transfers are subject to the following limits: |
(A) In no event shall the total transfers in any State |
fiscal year relating to outstanding bonds and notes issued |
by the Authority under subdivision (g)(2) of Section 4.04 |
exceed the lesser of the annual maximum amount specified |
in subsection (c) or the sum of the amounts certified |
under items (1) and (3) above, plus the actual debt |
service certified under item (2) above, less the amount |
certified under item (4) above, with respect to those |
bonds and notes. |
(B) In no event shall the total transfers in any State |
fiscal year relating to outstanding bonds and notes issued |
by the Authority under subdivision (g)(3) of Section 4.04 |
exceed the lesser of the annual maximum amount specified |
in subsection (c-5) or the sum of the amounts certified |
under items (1) and (3) above, plus the actual debt |
service certified under item (2) above, less the amount |
certified under item (4) above, with respect to those |
bonds and notes. |
The term "outstanding" does not include bonds or notes for |
which refunding or advance refunding bonds or notes have been |
|
issued. |
(e) Neither Additional State Assistance nor Additional |
Financial Assistance may be pledged, either directly or |
indirectly as general revenues of the Authority, as security |
for any bonds issued by the Authority. The Authority may not |
assign its right to receive Additional State Assistance or |
Additional Financial Assistance, or direct payment of |
Additional State Assistance or Additional Financial |
Assistance, to a trustee or any other entity for the payment of |
debt service on its bonds. |
(f) The certification required under subsection (d) with |
respect to outstanding bonds and notes of the Authority shall |
be filed as early as practicable before the beginning of the |
State fiscal year to which it relates. The certification shall |
be revised as may be necessary to accurately state the debt |
service requirements of the Authority. |
(g) Within 6 months of the end of each fiscal year, the |
Authority shall determine: |
(i) whether the aggregate of all system generated |
revenues for public transportation in the metropolitan |
region which is provided by, or under grant or purchase of |
service contracts with, the Service Boards equals 50% of |
the aggregate of all costs of providing such public |
transportation. "System generated revenues" include all |
the proceeds of fares and charges for services provided, |
contributions received in connection with public |
|
transportation from units of local government other than |
the Authority, except for contributions received by the |
Chicago Transit Authority from a real estate transfer tax |
imposed under subsection (i) of Section 8-3-19 of the |
Illinois Municipal Code, and from the State pursuant to |
subsection (i) of Section 2705-305 of the Department of |
Transportation Law, and all other revenues properly |
included consistent with generally accepted accounting |
principles but may not include: the proceeds from any |
borrowing, and, beginning with the 2007 fiscal year, all |
revenues and receipts, including but not limited to fares |
and grants received from the federal, State or any unit of |
local government or other entity, derived from providing |
ADA paratransit service pursuant to Section 2.30 of the |
Regional Transportation Authority Act. "Costs" include all |
items properly included as operating costs consistent with |
generally accepted accounting principles, including |
administrative costs, but do not include: depreciation; |
payment of principal and interest on bonds, notes or other |
evidences of obligations for borrowed money of the |
Authority; payments with respect to public transportation |
facilities made pursuant to subsection (b) of Section |
2.20; any payments with respect to rate protection |
contracts, credit enhancements or liquidity agreements |
made under Section 4.14; any other cost as to which it is |
reasonably expected that a cash expenditure will not be |
|
made; costs for passenger security including grants, |
contracts, personnel, equipment and administrative |
expenses, except in the case of the Chicago Transit |
Authority, in which case the term does not include costs |
spent annually by that entity for protection against crime |
as required by Section 27a of the Metropolitan Transit |
Authority Act; the costs of Debt Service paid by the |
Chicago Transit Authority, as defined in Section 12c of |
the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act, or bonds or notes |
issued pursuant to that Section; the payment by the |
Commuter Rail Division of debt service on bonds issued |
pursuant to Section 3B.09; expenses incurred by the |
Suburban Bus Division for the cost of new public |
transportation services funded from grants pursuant to |
Section 2.01e of this Act for a period of 2 years from the |
date of initiation of each such service; costs as exempted |
by the Board for projects pursuant to Section 2.09 of this |
Act; or, beginning with the 2007 fiscal year, expenses |
related to providing ADA paratransit service pursuant to |
Section 2.30 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act; |
or in fiscal years 2008 through 2012 inclusive, costs in |
the amount of $200,000,000 in fiscal year 2008, reducing |
by $40,000,000 in each fiscal year thereafter until this |
exemption is eliminated. If said system generated revenues |
are less than 50% of said costs, the Board shall remit an |
amount equal to the amount of the deficit to the State; |
|
however, due to the fiscal impacts from the COVID-19 |
pandemic, for fiscal years 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, and |
2025, and 2026, no such payment shall be required. The |
Treasurer shall deposit any such payment in the Road Fund; |
and |
(ii) whether, beginning with the 2007 fiscal year, the |
aggregate of all fares charged and received for ADA |
paratransit services equals the system generated ADA |
paratransit services revenue recovery ratio percentage of |
the aggregate of all costs of providing such ADA |
paratransit services. |
(h) If the Authority makes any payment to the State under |
paragraph (g), the Authority shall reduce the amount provided |
to a Service Board from funds transferred under paragraph (a) |
in proportion to the amount by which that Service Board failed |
to meet its required system generated revenues recovery ratio. |
A Service Board which is affected by a reduction in funds under |
this paragraph shall submit to the Authority concurrently with |
its next due quarterly report a revised budget incorporating |
the reduction in funds. The revised budget must meet the |
criteria specified in clauses (i) through (vi) of Section |
4.11(b)(2). The Board shall review and act on the revised |
budget as provided in Section 4.11(b)(3). |
(Source: P.A. 102-678, eff. 12-10-21; 103-281, eff. 1-1-24; |
103-588, eff. 6-5-24.) |